Month: February 2018

Supreme Court Explains SARFAESI Act In Latest Judgement

MASTI

In the latest judgement, the Supreme Court has analyzed the provisions of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (hereinafter referred to as the ‘SARFAESI Act’) for recovery of the loan amounts, along with interest, which are payable by DECCAN CHRONICLE HOLDINGS LIMITED to INDIABULLS HOUSING FINANCE LIMITED

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

CIVIL APPEAL NO. 18 OF 2018

INDIABULLS HOUSING FINANCE
LIMITED …..APPELLANT(S)

VERSUS

M/S. DECCAN CHRONICLE HOLDINGS
LIMITED AND OTHERS …..RESPONDENT(S)

WITH

CONTEMPT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 756 OF 2017

AND

CONTEMPT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 1693 OF 2017

JUDGMENT

A.K. SIKRI, J.

This appeal preferred by Indiabulls Housing Finance Limited, in which the main contesting parties are M/s. Deccan Chronicle Holdings Limited and its Directors (other respondents are the proforma parties), questions the correctness and legality of the judgment and order dated February 04, 2014 passed by the High Court of Judicature of Andhra Pradesh at Hyderabad.

The impugned judgment is passed by the High Court in the writ petition which was filed by the contesting respondents questioning the validity of actions taken by the appellant against the contesting respondents under the provisions of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (hereinafter referred to as the ‘SARFAESI Act’) for recovery of the loan amounts, along with interest, which are payable by the contesting respondents to the appellant.

2) The High Court has accepted the challenge laid by the contesting respondents holding that:

(a) loan agreements contained arbitration clauses which were invoked by the appellant with the filing of cases under Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. In view thereof, initiation of any other proceedings under the SARFAESI Act are impermissible in law; and

(b) the loan was initially given by M/s. Indiabulls Financial Services Limited (for short, ‘IBFSL’) on December 08, 2011 and January 05, 2012 in the sum of Rs.50 crores each. IBFSL was not a banking company or financial institution within the meaning of Section 2(d) and (m) of the SARFAESI Act and, therefore, it had no jurisdiction to take any steps by invoking the provisions of this Act. However, IBFSL got merged with the appellant company. No doubt, the appellant is a financial institution under the SARFAESI Act. However, since IBFSL had no right to initiate any action under the said Act, as a successor-in-interest, the appellant steps into the shoes of IBFSL and, therefore, it also cannot initiate any action under the SARFAESI Act. If that is allowed, held the High Court, substantive rights of the contesting respondents which accrued to them under Sections 69 and 69A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 would be adversely affected, which cannot be countenanced.

3) Having given the glimpse of the transaction which was entered into between the parties and also that of the basis of the impugned judgment of the High Court, we proceed to discuss the details on which the lis is founded.

4) We may start with the narration of brief facts of the case, which are as follows:

On April 18, 2005, IBFSL was granted a certificate under Section 45-I(a) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 to operate as a Non-Banking Financial Company and, thus, act as a financial institution under the said Act. The appellant was incorporated on May 10, 2005. The appellant and IBFSL were sister concerns. The appellant was granted a registration certificate dated December 28, 2005 to commence the business of housing finance institution. The Central Government, vide Notification dated September 19, 2007, issued under Section 2(1)

(m) of SARFAESI Act, specified the petitioner as a ‘financial institution’ for the purposes of the said Act. IBFSL disbursed a loan amount of Rs.50 crores to the respondent borrowers vide Loan Agreement dated December 08, 2011. The loan facility was secured by the respondent borrowers by creating equitable mortgage over various properties. IBFSL also disbursed a further amount of Rs.50 crores to the respondent borrowers vide Loan Agreement dated January 05, 2012. The loan facility was security by the respondent borrowers again by creating equitable mortgage over various properties.

5) Sometime in the year 2012, it was proposed that IBFSL gets merged with the appellant. After completing the formalities of informing the National Housing Bank as well as the Reserve Bank of India about the aforesaid proposal and furnishing them copies of the scheme of merger, the appellant filed a petition under sections 391-394 of the Indian Companies Act, 1956 in the High Court of Delhi for merger of IBFSL with the appellant. The High Court, after taking various steps under the provisions of the Companies Act, ultimately sanctioned the scheme of arrangement between IBFSL and the appellant vide orders dated December 12, 2012. With the sanction of the aforesaid merger, the assets and liabilities of IBFSL stood vested in the appellant, with IBFSL being dissolved without winding up on its amalgamation with the appellant. Pursuant to the said merger, the borrowers of IBFSL, including the respondent borrowers, became the borrowers of the appellant.

6) Insofar as respondent borrowers are concerned, they had committed default in repaying the loans advanced to them by IBFSL and, therefore, even before the merger, IBFSL had issued loan recall notice dated September 18, 2012 to the respondent borrowers. On March 04, 2013, the loan accounts of the contesting respondents and other co-borrowers were classified as Non Performing Assets (NPA) by IBFSL. On March 06, 2013, IBFSL filed a petition under Section 9 of the Arbitration Act, being O.P. No. 377 and 378 of 2013, before III Addl. Chief Judge, City Civil Court, Hyderabad for securing the amount payable by the respondent borrowers. An ad-interim injunction restraining the respondent borrowers and other co-borrowers therein from alienating the scheduled properties to third parties in any manner was passed. The scheme of arrangement as approved by the order dated April 12, 2013 was filed with the Registrar of Companies on March 08, 2013 making the same effective. The appellant, having stepped into the shoes of IBFSL in respect of the debts owed to IBFSL, issued notice dated March 08, 2013 under Section 13(2) of SARFAESI Act to the respondent borrowers and other co-borrowers. This was followed by notice dated May 29, 2013 issued under Section 13(4) of SARFAESI Act in respect of taking over symbolic possession of the mortgaged properties.

7) The respondents herein, on July 17, 2013, filed SA No. 182 of 2013 before the Debts Recovery Tribunal, Chandigarh under Section 17 of SARFAESI Act challenging the action of the appellant invoking the measures under Section 13(4) of SARFAESI Act. Within few days thereafter, i.e. on July 30, 2013, respondent No.1 also field Writ Petition No. 22688 of 2013 challenging, inter alia, the declaration of the account as NPA and passing of orders by the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate under Section 14 of the SARFAESI Act. Similar writ petitions, being Writ Petition Nos. 22689 and 22934 of 2013 were filed by respondent No.1’s employee union and respondent No.4 respectively. On September 04, 2013, the respondents herein unconditionally withdrew SA No. 182 of 2013 filed before the Debts Recovery Tribunal, Chandigarh. The appellant issued an auction notice dated November 21, 2013 informing the respondent borrowers that auction of the Banjara Hill properties of the respondent borrowers would be conducted on December 24, 2013. At this juncture, on December 19, 2013, respondent Nos.1 to 5 filed Writ Petition No. 37381 of 2012 before the High Court.

8) In the aforesaid writ petition, the High Court passed interim orders dated December 20, 2013, directing the parties to maintain status quo. Another interim order dated December 23, 2013 was passed directing the appellant not to finalise the auction though it was permitted to receive bids. However, the said auction could not fructify as, according to the appellant, some miscreants belonging to the contesting respondents came on the spot and threatened the intending purchasers and even tried to beat the representatives of the respondents and, therefore, the auction had to be cancelled. The appellant thereafter issued another auction notice dated December 28, 2013 fixing the auction dates as 3rd and 4th February 2014 in respect of Banjara Hills and Raj Bhavan Road properties respectively. Auction in respect of Banjara Hills properties took place on February 03, 2014 as per the date fixed. However, the sale was not finalised on account f the interim orders passed by the High Court. On February 04, 2014, when the next property was to be auctioned, the High Court gave the judgment in Writ Petition No. 37381 of 2013 filed by the contesting respondents allowing the said writ petition and setting aside the entire invocation of the SARFAESI Act by the appellant.

9) As already pointed out above, the High Court is swayed by the fact that after IBFSL had invoked the provisions of Section 9 of the Arbitration Act and filed petitions in this behalf, having regard to the arbitration agreement between the parties, it was not open to the appellant to take recourse to the provisions of SARFAESI Act. This aspect is concluded in the following manner:

“The two O.Ps. i.e. 377 and 378 of 2013 have already been filed in the name of IBFSL, under Section 9 of the Arbitration Act. The arbitration clause that existed in the agreements has been extracted in the preceding paragraphs. Section 8 of the Arbitration Act makes it amply clear that if the agreement between the parties contains an arbitration clause, institution of other proceedings is prohibited. When a suit cannot be instituted by a party to an agreement, which contains an arbitration clause, the initiation of proceedings before other fora becomes equally untenable. The proceedings under the SARFAESI Act cannot be placed on a higher pedestal. The borrower of a secured financial institution, as defined under Section 2(f) of the SARFAESI Act cannot be treated as a super Court, to be kept on a higher pedestal in the context of Section 8 of the Arbitration Act. When arbitration proceedings have already been initiated, the 4th respondent cannot be permitted, ignore them and proceed against the security.”

10) The High Court noted that the contesting respondents had not borrowed any amount from the appellant. The loan was taken from IBFSL, which was not under the purview of SARFAESI Act.

Therefore, at the time of taking the loan, the respondent borrowers knew that IBFSL would not be in a position to take recourse to the SARFAESI Act. With the merger of IBFSL with the appellant, ruled the High Court, the loan transaction which was outside the purview of the SARFAESI Act, could not be brought under its purview without the consent of the borrower. According to the High Court, SARFAESI Act prescribes a new legal regime and if the loan is allowed to be brought within the SARFAESI Act only because of merger and the appellant is allowed to take recourse under the SARFAESI Act, it would affect substantive rights of the contesting borrowers under Sections 69 and 69A of the Transfer of Property Act. In the process, the High Court has noted that the views of the Uttarakhand High Court and the Allahabad High Court are contrary to the aforesaid view.

However, it chose to agree with the view taken by the Division Bench of the Orissa High Court in deciding that provisions of SARFAESI Act will not be applicable. Pertinently, Full Bench of the Orissa High Court itself has overruled its Division Bench judgment.

11) We may record at this stage that the main ground on which notice issued under SARFAESI Act had been quashed is the impermissibility of invoking the provisions of the Act by the appellant herein who took over the assets and liabilities of IBFSL on merger. Insofar as the other issue, namely, provisions of SARFAESI Act could not be invoked as IBFSL had already invoked the machinery under the Arbitration Act by filing petitions under Section 9 thereof is concerned, this is decided as the subsidiary issue. Insofar as this subsidiary question is concerned, learned counsel for the respondent did not press this ground seriously and it was virtually conceded that merely because IBFSL had filed applications under Section 9 of the Arbitration Act, would not create a bar for proceeding under the SARFAESI Act. Even otherwise, we find that the High Court was in error in deciding this issue. It is not correct to say that proceedings under the SARFAESI Act cannot be placed on high pedestal. We find that SARFAESI Act is a special enactment which was enacted by the Parliament to provide speedy remedy to the banks and financial institutions without recourse to the court of law. On the other hand, the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, in contrast, is a statute of general nature. Merely because steps are taken under this general law would not mean that remedy under the special statute is foreclosed. If at all, legal position is just the reverse. Matter is no more res integra and is covered by a judgment of this Court in Transcore v. Union of India & Anr.1 In that case, after analysing the provisions of the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993, the Court summed up the position as under:

“18. On analysing the above provisions of the DRT Act, we find that the said Act is a complete code by itself as far as recovery of debt is concerned. It provides for various modes of recovery. It incorporates even the provisions of the Second and Third Schedules to the Income Tax Act, 1961. Therefore, the debt due under the recovery certificate can be recovered in various ways. The remedies mentioned therein are complementary to each other. The DRT Act provides for adjudication. It provides for adjudication of disputes as far as the debt due is concerned. It covers secured as well as unsecured debts. However, it does not rule out applicability of the provisions of the TP Act, in particular Sections 69 and 69-A of that Act.

Further, in cases where the debt is secured by pledge of shares or immovable properties, with the passage of time and delay in the DRT proceedings, the value of the pledged assets or mortgaged properties invariably 1 (2008) 1 SCC 125 falls. On account of inflation, value of the assets in the hands of the bank/FI invariably depletes which, in turn, leads to asset-liability mismatch. These contingencies are not taken care of by the DRT Act and, therefore, Parliament had to enact the NPA Act, 2002.”

12) Thereafter, the Court analysed the provisions of SARFAESI Act and then noted, in paragraph 37 of the judgment, three points of determination which arose for consideration. We are concerned with point No.1 formulated therein, which reads as under:

“(i) Whether the banks or financial institutions having elected to seek their remedy in terms of the DRT Act, 1993 can still invoke the NPA Act, 2002 for realising the secured assets without withdrawing or abandoning the OA filed before DRT under the DRT Act.”

13) After detailed discussion on this question, the Court rejected the applicability of the doctrine of election by holding that simply because remedy under the provisions of the DRT Act was availed would not mean that the financial institution was precluded from taking steps under SARFAESI Act. Thus, answering the question in the affirmative, essence of the discussion can be captured in the following paragraphs:

“64. In the light of the above discussion, we now examine the doctrine of election. There are three elements of election, namely, existence of two or more remedies; inconsistencies between such remedies and a choice of one of them. If any one of the three elements is not there, the doctrine will not apply. According to American Jurisprudence, 2d, Vol. 25, p.

652, if in truth there is only one remedy, then the doctrine of election does not apply. In the present case, as stated above, the NPA Act is an additional remedy to the DRT Act. Together they constitute one remedy and, therefore, the doctrine of election does not apply. Even according to Snell’s Principles of Equity (31st Edn., p. 119), the doctrine of election of remedies is applicable only when there are two or more co-existent remedies available to the litigants at the time of election which are repugnant and inconsistent. In any event, there is no repugnancy nor inconsistency between the two remedies, therefore, the doctrine of election has no application.

65. In our view, the judgments of the High Courts which have taken the view that the doctrine of election is applicable are erroneous and liable to be set aside.

66. We have already analysed the scheme of both the Acts. Basically, the NPA Act is enacted to enforce the interest in the financial assets which belongs to the bank/FI by virtue of the contract between the parties or by operation of common law principles or by law. The very object of Section 13 of the NPA Act is recovery by non-adjudicatory process. A secured asset under the NPA Act is an asset in which interest is created by the borrower in favour of the bank/FI and on that basis alone the NPA Act seeks to enforce the security interest by non-adjudicatory process. Essentially, the NPA Act deals with the rights of the secured creditor.

The NPA Act proceeds on the basis that the debtor has failed not only to repay the debt, but he has also failed to maintain the level of margin and to maintain value of the security at a level is the other obligation of the debtor. It is this other obligation which invites applicability of the NPA Act. It is for this reason, that Sections 13(1) and 13(2) of the NPA Act proceed on the basis that security interest in the bank/FI needs to be enforced expeditiously without the intervention of the court/tribunal; that liability of the borrower has accrued and on account of default in repayment, the account of the borrower in the books of the bank has become non-performing. For the above reasons, the NPA Act states that the enforcement could take place by non-adjudicatory process and that the said Act removes all fetters under the above circumstances on the rights of the secured creditor.”

14) With this, we now address the central issue on which detailed arguments were advanced by both the parties. We may note that our discussion is not on a virgin field as the terrain has already been covered by this Court in M.D. Frozen Foods Exports Pvt. Ltd. & Ors. v. Hero Fincorp Ltd.2 The learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant had submitted that this case, which is directly on point, not only lays down the proposition that even successor-in-interest (like the appellant herein) would be authorised to invoke the provisions of SARFAESI Act even if the original lender was not a financial institution covered by the Act, it has specifically overruled the judgment of the Andhra Pradesh High Court, which is the subject matter of appeal at hand. On that basis, it was submitted that it was not even necessary to have further probe in the matter.

15) Learned counsel for the appellant is factually correct in pointing out that the impugned judgment of the Andhra Pradesh High Court is specifically noted and overruled by this Court in M.D. Frozen Foods. Therefore, it would be apt to discuss the said judgment in the first instance.

16) In M.D. Frozen Foods the appellants had borrowed monies for their business from the respondents against security of 2 (2017) SCC Online SC 1211 immovable properties by creating an equitable mortgage. Loan agreement contained an arbitration clause. Since the appellant defaulted in making the payment and the account became NPA, the respondent invoked the arbitration clause on November 16, 2016. However, three months before this invocation, a notification was issued on August 05, 2016 specifying certain Non-Financial Banking Companies (NFBCs) covered under clause (f) of Section 45-I of the RBI Act, with assets of more than Rs. 500 crores and above, as financial institutions and directing that the provisions of SARFAESI Act shall apply to such financial institutions with the exceptions of provisions of Sections 13 to 19 of that Act. Sections 13 to 19 were made applicable, as per the notification, only to such security interest which is obtained for securing repayment of secured debt with principal amount of Rs.1 crore and above. The respondent was specifically covered by the said notification which was issued in exercise of powers conferred under sub-clause (iv) of clause (m) of sub-section (1) of Section 2 read with Section 31A of the SARFAESI Act. In view of the aforesaid notification, the respondent issued a notice under Section 13(2) of SARFAESI Act on November 24, 2016 for one of the seven properties mortgaged to it against the aforesaid loan which was advanced to the appellants.

17) Having regard to the aforesaid facts in M.D. Frozen Foods, the Court formulated following three questions which had arisen for consideration:

“A. Whether the arbitration proceedings initiated by the respondent can be carried on along with the SARFAESI proceedings simultaneously?

B. Whether resort can be had to Section 13 of the SARFAESI Act in respect of debts which have arisen out of a loan agreement/mortgage created prior to the application of the SARFAESI Act to the respondent?

C. A linked question to question (ii), whether the lender can invoke the SARFAESI Act provision where its notification as financial institution under Section 2(1)

(m) has been issued after the account became an NPA under Section 2(1)(o) of the said Act?” These questions amply demonstrate that the instant case is virtually on the same footing.

18) Insofar as question ‘A’ is concerned, the Court categorically held that merely because remedy under the Arbitration Act was invoked was no ground to debar the respondent from taking recourse to the SARFAESI Act. The discussion from that judgment is reproduced below:

“26. A claim by a bank or a financial institution, before the specified laws came into force, would ordinarily have been filed in the Civil Court having the pecuniary jurisdiction. The setting up of the Debt Recovery Tribunal under the RDDB Act resulted in this specialised Tribunal entertaining such claims by the banks and financial institutions. In fact, suits from the civil jurisdiction were transferred to the Debt Recovery Tribunal. The Tribunal was, thus, an alternative to a Civil Court recovery proceedings.

27. On the SARFAESI Act being brought into force seeking to recover debts against security interest, a question was raised whether parallel proceedings could go on under the RDDB Act and the SARFAESI Act. This issue was clearly answered in favour of such simultaneous proceedings in Transcore v. Union of India. A later judgment in Mathew Varghese v. M. Amritha Kumar also discussed this issue in the following terms:

“45. A close reading of Section 37 shows that the provisions of the SARFAESI Act or the Rules framed thereunder will be in addition to the provisions of the RDDB Act. Section 35 of the SARFAESI Act states that the provisions of the SARFAESI Act will have overriding effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent contained in any other law for the time being in force. Therefore, reading Sections 35 and 37 together, it will have to be held that in the event of any of the provisions of the RDDB Act not being inconsistent with the provisions of the SARFAESI Act, the application of both the Acts, namely, the SARFAESI Act and the RDDB Act, would be complementary to each other. In this context, reliance can be placed upon the decision in Transcore v. Union of India [(2008) 1 SCC 125 :

(2008) 1 SCC (Civ) 116]. In para 64 it is stated as under after referring to Section 37 of the SARFAESI Act: (SCC p. 162) “64. … According to American Jurisprudence, 2d, Vol. 25, p. 652, if in truth there is only one remedy, then the doctrine of election does not apply. In the present case, as stated above, the NPA Act is an additional remedy to the DRT Act. Together they constitute one remedy and, therefore, the doctrine of election does not apply. Even according to Snell’s Principles of Equity (31st Edn., p. 119), the doctrine of election of remedies is applicable only when there are two or more co-existent remedies available to the litigants at the time of election which are repugnant and inconsistent. In any event, there is no repugnancy nor inconsistency between the two remedies, therefore, the doctrine of election has no application.” (emphasis added)

46. A reading of Section 37 discloses that the application of the SARFAESI Act will be in addition to and not in derogation of the provisions of the RDDB Act. In other words, it will not in any way nullify or annul or impair the effect of the provisions of the RDDB Act. We are also fortified by our above statement of law as the heading of the said section also makes the position clear that application of other laws are not barred. The effect of Section 37 would, therefore, be that in addition to the provisions contained under the SARFAESI Act, in respect of proceedings initiated under the said Act, it will be in order for a party to fall back upon the provisions of the other Acts mentioned in Section 37, namely, the Companies Act, 1956, the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956, the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992, the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993, or any other law for the time being in force.”

28. These observations, thus, leave no manner of doubt and the issue is no more res integra, especially keeping in mind the provisions of Sections 35 and 37 of the SARFAESI Act, which read as under:

“35. The provisions of this Act to override other laws. – The provisions of this Act shall have effect, notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith contained in any other law for the time being in force or any instrument having effect by virtue of any such law.” … .… .… .….

“37. Application of other laws not barred.

– The provisions of this Act or the rules made thereunder shall be in addition to, and not in derogation of, the Companies Act, 1956 (1 of 1956), the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 (42 of 1956), the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 (15 of 1992), the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 (51 of 1993) or any other law for the time being in force.”

29. The aforesaid two Acts are, thus, complimentary to each other and it is not a case of election of remedy.

xx xx xx

33. SARFAESI proceedings are in the nature of enforcement proceedings, while arbitration is an adjudicatory process. In the event that the secured assets are insufficient to satisfy the debts, the secured creditor can proceed against other assets in execution against the debtor, after determination of the pending outstanding amount by a competent forum.

34. We are, thus, unequivocally of the view that the judgments of the Full Bench of the Orissa High Court in Sarthak Builders Pvt. Ltd. v. Orissa Rural Development Corporation Limited, the Full Bench of the Delhi High Court in HDFC Bank Limited v. Satpal Singh Bakshi (supra) and the Division Bench of the Allahabad High Court in Pradeep Kumar Gupta v. State of U.P. lay down the correct proposition of law and the view expressed by the Andhra Pradesh High Court in Deccan Chronicles Holdings Limited v. Union of India following the overruled decision of the Orissa High Court in Subash Chandra Panda v. State of Orissa does not set forth the correct position in law. SARFAESI proceedings and arbitration proceedings, thus, can go hand in hand.”

19) Insofar as questions ‘B’ and ‘C’ are concerned, the Court again referred to the conflicting opinion of different High Courts and after discussion held that the SARFAESI Act was retroactive in nature and, therefore, once this Act came into force, the respondent in the said case had right to invoke the provisions of the Act even if loan agreement was entered into and mortgage created prior to the coming into force the SARFAESI Act.

Paragraphs 36 to 38 of the judgment need to be reproduced in this behalf, which are to the following effect:

“36. The SARFAESI Act was brought into force to solve the problem of recovery of large debts in NPAs. Thus, the very rationale for the said Act to be brought into force was to provide an expeditious procedure where there was a security interest. It certainly did not apply retrospectively from the date when it came into force. The question is whether, the Act being applicable to the respondent at a subsequent date and thereby allowing the respondent to utilize its provisions with regards to a past debt, would make any difference to this principle. We are of the view that the answer to the same is in the negative.

37. The Act applies to all the claims which would be alive at the time when it was brought into force. Thus, qua the respondent or other NBFCs, it would be applicable similarly from the date when it was so made applicable to them.

38. The Full Bench of the Orissa High Court in Sarthak Builders Pvt. Ltd. v. Orissa Rural Development Corporation Limited (supra) has, in fact, succinctly sets out this aspect. No doubt, till the respondent was not a ‘financial institution’ within the meaning of Section 2(1)(m)(iv) of the SARFAESI Act, it was not a ‘secured creditor’ as defined under Section 2(1)(zd) of the SARFAESI Act and, thus, could not invoke the provisions of the SARFAESI Act. However, the right to proceed under the SARFAESI Act accrued once the Notification was issued. The Full Bench referred to a Division Bench judgment of the Uttarakhand High Court in Unique Engineering Works v. Union of India which dealt with the issue of retrospectivity and retroactivity. In case of retroactivity, the Parliament takes note of the existing conditions and promulgates the remedial measures to rectify those conditions. In fact the SARFAESI Act, in our view, was to remedy such a position and provide a measure against secured interests. The scheme of the SARFAESI Act, is really to provide a procedural remedy against security interest already created.

Therefore, an existing borrower, who had been granted financial assistance was covered under Section 2(f) of the said Act as a ‘borrower’. Not only this expression, the definition clauses dealing with ‘debt securities’, ‘financial assistance’, ‘financial assets’, etc., clearly convey the legislative intent that the SARFAESI Act applies to all existing agreements irrespective of the fact whether the lender was a notified ‘financial institution’ on the date of the execution of the agreement with the borrower or not. The scheme of the SARFAESI Act sets out an expeditious, procedural methodology, enabling the bank to take possession of the property for non- payment of dues, without intervention of the court. The mere fact that a more expeditious remedy is provided under the SARFAESI Act does not mean that it is substantive in character or has created an altogether new right. To accept the argument of the appellants would imply that they have an inherent right to delay the enforcement against the security interest!”

20) The Court also referred to certain judgments laying down distinction between retroactive and retrospective operation of a particular statute3.

21) The fact situation was, thus, almost the same in the instant case.

The only difference is that here the loan was initially sanctioned by IBFSL which stands merged with the appellant and the appellant is the successor-in-interest which is covered by the SARFAESI Act. In the aforesaid case, though the entity which disbursed the loan remained the same, however, at the time 3 West v. Gwynne, 1911 2 Ch 1 at pp. 11, 12 Trimbak Damodhar Raipurkar v. Assaram Hiraman Patil, 1962 Supp (1) SCR 700 In re Athlumney. Ex parte Wilson, (1898) 2 Q.B. 547 when the loan was given by the respondent to the appellant it was not a financial institution covered under the SARFAESI Act, which status was attained by the respondent in view of notification dated August 05, 2016 issued much after the loan was disbursed to the appellant therein. This does not make any difference in the outcome, as discussed in detailed hereinafter.

22) Learned counsel for respondents could not dispute that the aforesaid judgment covers the present case in its entirety. This position had to be accepted by them having regard to the fact that the judgment of the High Court which is impugned in these proceedings has been specifically overruled by this Court in M.D. Frozen Foods case. Faced with this stark reality staring at the face of the respondents, a valiant effort was made to convince this Bench to take a contrary view and in the process it was submitted that in M.D. Frozen Foods some important legal aspects have not been considered.

23) To put it pithily, the submissions of the learned counsel for respondents revolved around the following aspects:

(i) The appellant had neither advanced nor granted any loan or financial assistance to respondent no. 1 and, therefore, it could not have invoked the provisions of the SARFAESI Act.

(ii) Respondent no. 1 could not be treated as ‘borrower’ as defined under Section 2(1)(f) of the SARFAESI Act read with Sections 2(1)(c) and 2(1)(m) of that Act. Submission was that the respondent no. 1 is not a person who has been granted financial assistance by any Bank or Financial Institution nor can respondent no. 1 be brought under the ambit of the definition of being a person who has given a guarantee or create any mortgage or pledge as security for the financial assistance granted by any Bank or Financial Institution, i.e., the appellant. It was argued that the definition of the term borrower is clear and un-ambiguous itself and the rule of literal interpretation deserves to be deployed. The respondents relied upon the dictum in P.K. Unni vs. Nirmala Industries & Others 4 wherein it is held that the Court must proceed on an assumption that the legislature did not make a mistake and that it intended to say what it said it was further held that even assuming that there was a defect or omission in the words used by the legislature, the Court would not go to its said to correct or make up the deficiency. The Court cannot add words to a statute or read words into it which are not there, especially 4 (1990) 2 SCC 378 when the literal reading produces an intelligible result. The courts are not authorised to alter a word so as to produce a “casus omissus”. Support from the judgment in the matter of Union of India v. Elphin Stone Spinning and Weaving Company Limited & Others 5 was also taken in this behalf. The learned counsel also referred to yet another case, viz., Delhi Financial Corporation and another v. Rajiv Anand and others6 wherein this aforesaid principle is reiterated.

(iii) The loan agreements dated December 08, 2011 and January 05, 2012 which were entered into between respondent No. 1 and IBFSL cannot be classified as ‘security arrangement’ within the meaning of Section 2(1) (zb) of the SARFAESI Act.

(iv) These agreements did not create ‘security interest’ within the meaning of Section 2(1)(zb) of the SARFAESI Act. It was argued that the term security assets as defined under Section 2(1)(zc) of the Act means the property on which the security interest is created. The terms ‘security interest’ is defined under Section 2(1)(zf) to mean right, title, interest of any kind whatsoever upon property created in favour of a secured creditor (as defined under Section 2(1)(zb) and 5 (2001) 4 SCC 139 6 (2004) 11 SCC 625 includes a mortgage, charge, hypothecation or assignment other than specified in Section 31). Similarly security agreement is defined under Section 2(1)(zb).

The submission was that the agreements dated December 08, 2011 and January 05, 2012 do not fall within the purview of Section 2(a)(zb) since at the time when the said agreements were entered into, the entity in favour of which they were executed, i.e., Indiabulls Financial Services Limited, was not a secured creditor within the meaning of Section 2(1)(zd) of the SARFAESI Act. Under the circumstances are the necessary ingredients of Section 13(1) and 13(2) being absent, no action could have been taken under Section 13(2) or Section 13(4) of the Act. It is this say of the respondents that the clauses contained in the scheme of amalgamation, firstly do not manifest any intention to create any new right in favour of the amalgamated company. Secondly, clauses in scheme of amalgamation, albeit sanctioned by Court, cannot be raised to the pedestal of statutory provisions creating a right in favour of subsequent acquirer of rights not statutorily provided, nor can such clauses be held to create a deeming fiction not statutorily provided.

(v) Amalgamation of an entity not lying within the ambit of SARFAESI Act then entity which falls within realm of the said Act would not entitle amalgamated entity to invoke the provisions of SARFAESI Act, in respect of a transaction/agreement entered into much prior to the amalgamation. The submission was that the imprimatur created by virtue of sanctioning of a scheme by High Court under Sections 391 to 394 of the Companies Act cannot be held to create rights, liabilities and obligations which were not statutorily envisaged. It was argued that the provisions of SARFAESI Act, cannot be held to be purely procedural, they create substantial right in favour of the secured creditor for recovery of its dues by way of enforcement of security interest without invocation of the court. Section 13(1) creates substantive rights and by no stretch of imagination, and cannot be said to a provision, procedural in nature. The procedure for enforcement of that substantial right is provided under Sub-Section (2) on the happening of the eventuality as mentioned therein. That a further procedure of prescribing the details in a notice is to be given by virtue of Section 13(3) and provide for making a representation under Section 13(3)(A) and further provides for a procedure for release and recovery of secured debt under Section 13(4). In absence of a substantial right being created by Section 13(1), procedural provisions contained in sub- Sections (2) to (4) are meaningless as it would not provide a remedy for the enforcement of substantial right created under Section 13(4). It would not, therefore, be correct to treat SARFAESI Act as a merely procedural statute.

24) It was submitted that this was a reverse merger inasmuch as IBFSL was a holding company and the appellant company was only a subsidiary company and holding company was sought to be amalgamated and merged with the subsidiary company.

25) It was also submitted that the entire exercise of merger was undertaken to transfer loan from financial company to a financial company in order to take advantage of provisions of SARFAESI Act, which according to the respondents is not permissible in law. On the aforesaid basis, the first submission of the learned counsel for respondents was that there was no transfer and vesting of loan in the appellant company provisions as per the scheme. It was argued that the scheme envisaged, under paragraph 4, that with effect from the appointed date, i.e., April 01, 2012, the amalgamating company comprising the amalgamating undertaking shall, pursuant to the sanction of the scheme by the High Court and compliance of statutory provisions, be and stand transferred to and vested in the amalgamated company as a going concern without any further act, instrument, deed, matter or thing so as to become, as and from the appointed date April 01, 2012, the undertakings of the amalgamated company by virtue of and in the manner provided in the scheme.

26) Various other clauses of the scheme were referred to, to buttress the aforesaid submission. In this hue, it was argued that since as per Clause 8 of the Scheme, all suits, actions and other proceedings including legal and taxation proceedings etc. are to be continued or enforced by or against the amalgamating company. The proceedings instituted by IBFSL under Section 9 of the Arbitration Act against the respondents would be deemed to be an act of the appellant. In other words, the amalgamating company can have no better and further right that one possesses by IBFSL.

27) The learned counsel for the respondents attempted to strengthen the aforesaid architecture with the help of some legal precedents. In the first instance, reference was made to the judgment in the case of Rishabh Agro Industries Limited v. P.N.B. Service Limited7 wherein this Court held as under:

“6. Learned counsel appearing for the respondent has submitted that such an interpretation would defeat the ends of justice and make the petitions under the Companies Act, infructuous inasmuch as any unscrupulous litigant, after suffering an order of winding up, may approach the Board merely be filing a petition and consequently get the proceedings in the Company case stayed. Such a grievance may be justified and the submission having substance but in view of the language of Sections 15 and 16 of the Act particularly explanation to Section 16 inserted by Act No. 12 of 1994, this Court has no option but to adhere to its earlier decision taken in Real Value Appliances (Supra). While interpreting, this Court only interprets the law and cannot legislate it. If a provision of law is misused and subjected to the abuse of process of law, it is for the Legislature to amend modify or repeal it by having recourse to appropriate procedure, if deemed necessary.” It was argued that the above observations of this Court clearly negate the submission of the appellant that because the SARFAESI Act has been enacted to overcome the accumulated NPA in public interest, the term ‘borrower’ has to be widely construed.

28) Reliance was also placed on the Constitution Bench judgment in the case of Padma Sundara Rao v. State of Tamil Nadu8 where this Court has held as under:

“12. The rival pleas regarding rewriting of statute and casus omissus need careful consideration. It is well-

settled principle in law that the court cannot read anything into a statutory provision which is plain and 7 (2000) 5 SCC 515 8 (2002) 3 SCC 533 unambiguous. A statute is an edict of the legislature.

The language employed in a statute is the determinative factor of legislative intent. The first and primary rule of construction is that the intention of the legislation must be found in the words used by the legislature itself. The question is not what may be supposed and has been intended but what has been said. “Statutes should be construed, not as theorems of Euclid”, Judge Learned Hand said, “but words must be construed with some imagination of the purposes which lie behind them”. (See Lenigh Valley Coal Co. v. Yensavage [218 FR 547].) The view was reiterated in Union of India v. Filip Tiago De Gama of Vedem Vasco De Gama [(1990) 1 SCC 277 : AIR 1990 SC 981].

13. In D.R. Venkatchalam v. Dy. Transport Commr. [(1977) 2 SCC 273 : AIR 1977 SC 842] it was observed that courts must avoid the danger of a priori determination of the meaning of a provision based on their own preconceived notions of ideological structure or scheme into which the provision to be interpreted is somewhat fitted. They are not entitled to usurp legislative function under the disguise of interpretation.

14. While interpreting a provision the court only interprets the law and cannot legislate it. If a provision of law is misused and subjected to the abuse of process of law, it is for the legislature to amend, modify or repeal it, if deemed necessary.

(See Rishabh Agro Industries Ltd. v. P.N.B. Capital Services Ltd. [(2000) 5 SCC 515]) The legislative casus omissus cannot be supplied by judicial interpretative process. Language of Section 6(1) is plain and unambiguous. There is no scope for reading something into it, as was done in Narasimhaiah case [(1996) 3 SCC 88] . In Nanjudaiah case [(1996) 10 SCC 619] the period was further stretched to have the time period run from date of service of the High Court’s order. Such a view cannot be reconciled with the language of Section 6(1). If the view is accepted it would mean that a case can be covered by not only clause (i) and/or clause (ii) of the proviso to Section 6(1), but also by a non-prescribed period. Same can never be the legislative intent.

15. Two principles of construction — one relating to casus omissus and the other in regard to reading the statute as a whole — appear to be well settled. Under the first principle a casus omissus cannot be supplied by the court except in the case of clear necessity and when reason for it is found in the four corners of the statute itself but at the same time a casus omissus should not be readily inferred and for that purpose all the parts of a statute or section must be construed together and every clause of a section should be construed with reference to the context and other clauses thereof so that the construction to be put on a particular provision makes a consistent enactment of the whole statute. This would be more so if literal construction of a particular clause leads to manifestly absurd or anomalous results which could not have been intended by the legislature. “An intention to produce an unreasonable result”, said Danckwerts, L.J., in Artemiou v. Procopiou [(1966) 1 QB 878 : (1965) 3 All ER 539 : (1965) 3 WLR 1011 (CA)] (at All ER p. 544-I), “is not to be imputed to a statute if there is some other construction available”. Where to apply words literally would “defeat the obvious intention of the legislation and produce a wholly unreasonable result”, we must “do some violence to the words” and so achieve that obvious intention and produce a rational construction. [Per Lord Reid in Luke v. IRC [1963 AC 557 : (1963) 1 All ER 655 : (1963) 2 WLR 559 (HL)] where at AC p. 577 he also observed: (All ER p. 664-I) “This is not a new problem, though our standard of drafting is such that it rarely emerges.”]”

29) It was contended that in light of the above-stated principles enunciated in the Constitution Bench decision, since the language of Section 2(1)(f) and 2(a)(zf) is unambiguous, the casus omissus cannot be applied by a judicial interpretation process. It was submitted that there is no scope of reading something into, which it does not exist.

30) Counsel for the respondents also placed strong reliance upon the judgment in the ICICI Bank Limited v. Official Liquidator of APS Star Industries and others 9 which centres around the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and guidelines of RBI issued on the subject of inter se transfer of non-performing assets by Bank. It was held that the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 does not come in the way of such transfers. Banks/Banking Companies are covered under SARFAESI Act in any event. As such, transfers inter se bank would not give rise to the question of change in the nature of the lender leading to change in the status of applicability of SARFAESI Act. On that basis, it was submitted that such a transfer would not change the status of a borrower who, if earlier created a security interest, continues to be a borrower of another secured creditor. However, in the present case, there is sought to be a complete change in the status of the borrower and that too without his consent.

31) The learned counsel, at the end, made a passionate plea about the far reaching consequences which may ensue if the appellant is permitted to take recourse to the provisions of SARFAESI Act as debts would be transferred to SARFAESI companies to take advantage of that enactment.

9 (2010) 100 SCC

32) After considering the aforesaid submission, we are of the opinion

that entire edifice is built on the pleas which are squarely answered in M.D. Frozen Foods and there is no reason to take a different view therefrom for the reasons that follow hereinafter.

33) In the instant case, loan was given by IBFSL which was not a financial institution covered by the SARFAESI Act when the loan was given. However, this entity has got merged with the appellant and appellant is a SARFAESI company. In this backdrop, the entire thrust of the argument of the respondent is that as a successor company, the appellant cannot take advantage. In order to deal with this aspect, we will have to first taken into consideration, the effect of such a merger scheme as approved by the High Court. It is to be kept in mind that the loan/debts/financial assets stood vested in the appellant pursuant to the amalgamation scheme filed by the two companies under Sections 391 and 394 of the Companies Act, 1956 whereunder the predecessor company, IBFSL got amalgamated with the appellant, the effect of such a merger is explained by this Court in Saraswati Industrial Syndicate Ltd. v. Commissioner of Income Tax10 in the following manner:

10 1990(Supp) SCC 675 “5. Generally, where only one company is involved in change and the rights of the shareholders and creditors are varied, it amounts to reconstruction or reorganisation of scheme of arrangement. In amalgamation two or more companies are fused into one by merger or by taking over by another.

Reconstruction or ‘amalgamation’ has no precise legal meaning. The amalgamation is a blending of two or more existing undertakings into one undertaking, the shareholders of each blending company become substantially the shareholders in the company which is to carry on the blended undertakings. There may be amalgamation either by the transfer of two or more undertakings to a new company, or by the transfer of one or more undertakings to an existing company. Strictly ‘amalgamation’ does not cover the mere acquisition by a company of the share capital of other company which remains in existence and continues its undertaking but the context in which the term is used may show that it is intended to include such an acquisition. See: Halsbury’s Laws of England (4th edition volume 7 para 1539). Two companies may join to form a new company, but there may be absorption or blending of one by the other, both amount to amalgamation. When two companies are merged and are so joined, as to form a third company or one is absorbed into one or blended with another, the amalgamating company loses its entity.”

34) Thus, on sanction of the scheme of amalgamation, all loans, recoveries, security, interest, financial documents, etc. in favour of IBFSL got transferred to and stood vested in the appellant including the loans given by IBFSL to respondent borrowers, debts recoverable by IBFSL from respondent borrowers in favour of IBFSL, security documents executed by respondent borrowers in favour of IBFSL, etc. On the sanctioning of the scheme, the respondent borrowers became the borrower of the appellant as if the financial assistance was granted by the appellant to the respondent borrowers.

35) There is a force in the contention by the appellant that the debt with underlying securities is the asset of IBFSL and that IBFSL had right to transfer/assign its assets to any person without seeking consent of the borrower. Such transfer/assignment is recognized and that this Court in the case of Official Liquidator of APS Star Industries has recognised and upheld such an assignment.

36) In the aforesaid backdrop, the factor which assumes importance and has to be kept in mind is that the appellant is an assignee of a debt through the amalgamation of original lender with the appellant which was effected invoking the statutory provisions of the Companies Act. Once this is kept in mind, there would not be any difference as far as consequences in law are concerned from the case of M.D. Frozen Foods and this case. Therefore, M.D. Frozen Foods case would apply to the facts of this case in all force.

37) Further, it is too farfetched to argue that just to realise the dues from the respondents, IBFSL and the appellant devised the plan of merger so as to attract the provisions of SARFAESI Act and we are not inclined to accept such a submission. Various judgments which are relied upon by the respondents also would not apply as we neither find it to be a case of the Court creating any legislation or supplying any casus omissus.

38) Apart from the factual parity, even legally the arguments of the respondents do not carry any weight. The view taken in M.D. Frozen Foods is that the SARFAESI Act is retroactive in nature. In the process, the Court approved the Full Bench decision of the Orissa High Court in Sarthak Builders Pvt. Ltd., Chinta, Arunodaya Market, Cuttack & Another v. Orissa Rural Development Corporation Limited, Station Square, Bhubaneswar & 5 Ors.11 and made the following observations:

“38…In case of retroactivity, the Parliament takes note of the existing conditions and promulgates the remedial measures to rectify those conditions. In fact the SARFAESI Act, in our view, was to remedy such a position and provide a measure against secured interests. The scheme of the SARFAESI Act, is really to provide a procedural remedy against security interest already created. Therefore, an existing borrower, who had been granted financial assistance was covered under Section 2(f) of the said Act as a ‘borrower’. Not only this expression, the definition clauses dealing with ‘debt securities’, ‘financial assistance’, ‘financial assets’, etc., clearly convey the legislative intent that the SARFAESI Act applies to all existing agreements irrespective of the fact whether the lender was a notified ‘financial institution’ on the date of the execution of the agreement with the 11 (2014) SCC Online Ori 75 borrower or not. The scheme of the SARFAESI Act sets out an expeditious, procedural methodology, enabling the bank to take possession of the property for non-payment of dues, without intervention of the court. The mere fact that a more expeditious remedy is provided under the SARFAESI Act does not mean that it is substantive in character or has created an altogether new right. To accept the argument of the appellants would imply that they have an inherent right to delay the enforcement against the security interest!

39. The catena of judgments referred to by learned senior counsel for the appellants on substantive law not being retrospective in operation, unless expressly stated so in the Act would, thus, have no application to the matter in issue, in view of what we have observed aforesaid. On the other hand, as observed by Buckley, L.J. in West v. Gwynne, retrospective operation is one matter and interference with existing rights is another. In that context, it was ruled that the provisions of the Conveyancing of Law and Property Act, 1892 were held applicable to leases containing a covenant, condition or agreement against assigning, under- letting or parting with possession or disposing of land or property leased without license or consent to all leases whether executed before or after the commencement of the Act. Such a construction was held not to make the Act retrospective in operation but merely effected the future existing rights under all leases whether executed before or after the date of that Act. (Discussed in Trimbak Damodhar Raipurkar v. Assaram Hiraman Patil).

40. In a similar vein, are the observations made in the case of In re Athlumney. Ex parte Wilson, where the question posed before the Queen’s Division Bench was whether Section 23 of the Bankruptcy Act, 1890 was retrospective in its operation. In the aforementioned context, Wright, J., speaking for the Bench, illuminatingly opined:

“Perhaps no rule of construction is more firmly established than this — that a retrospective operation is not to be given to a statute so as to impair an existing right or obligation, otherwise than as regards matter of procedure, unless that effect cannot be avoided without doing violence to the language of the enactment. If the enactment is expressed in language which is fairly capable of either interpretation, it ought to be construed as prospective only… it is a general rule that when the Legislature alters the rights of parties by taking away or conferring any right of action, its enactments, unless in express terms they apply to pending actions, do not affect them…It is said that there is one exception to that rule, namely, that, where enactments merely affect procedure and do not extend to rights of action, they have been held to apply to existing rights, and it is suggested here that the alteration made by this section is within that exception…” (Emphasis supplied)

41. Similarly, the date on which a debt is declared as an NPA would again have no impact. We are, thus, of the view that the provisions of the SARFAESI Act would become applicable quaall debts owing and live when the Act became applicable to the respondent in terms of the parameters contended by learned senior counsel for the respondent and enlisted at serial Nos. i to iv in para 18.” It, thus, follows that there is only a procedural change in respect of forum for recovery of debt and no substantive rights are affected.

39) In view of the aforesaid judgment, argument of the respondents herein predicated on Sections 69 and 69A of the Transfer of Property Act, which weighed with the High Court, is without any substance.

40) The aforesaid view also gets support from the judgment of this Court in Mardia Chemicals Ltd. & Ors. v. Union of India & Ors.12 wherein the background and salient feature of the SARFAESI Act have been extensively discussed and analysed and the Court has also highlighted the objective behind enacting such a legislation.

41) These sentiments are echoed in the subsequent judgment in the case of United Bank of India v. Satyawati Tondon and Others13 wherein it was held that the Act is intended to give impetus to industrial development in the country by providing speedy procedure of recovery. On account of lack of infrastructure and manpower, regular courts were not able to cope with the speed in adjudication of recovery cases. In the light of recommendations of the Tiwari Committee, special tribunals came to be set up under the provisions of the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 for recovery of huge accumulated NPAs of the bank loans. On the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee and Andhyarujina Committee, SARFAESI Act was enacted to empower banks and financial institutions to take possession of the securities and to sell them without the intervention of the Court. In this regard, reference may be made to the following observations of this Court in the case of Satyawati Tondon:

12 (2004) 4 SCC 311
13 (2010) 8 SCC 110

“1…With a view to give impetus to the industrial development of the country, the Central and State Governments encouraged the banks and other financial institutions to formulate liberal policies for grant of loans and other financial facilities to those who wanted to set up new industrial units or expand the existing units. Many hundred thousand took advantage of easy financing by the banks and other financial institutions but a large number of them did not repay the amount of loan, etc. Not only this, they instituted frivolous cases and succeeded in persuading the civil courts to pass orders of injunction against the steps taken by banks and financial institutions to recover their dues. Due to lack of adequate infrastructure and non-availability of manpower, the regular courts could not accomplish the task of expeditiously adjudicating the cases instituted by banks and other financial institutions for recovery of their dues. As a result, several hundred crores of public money got blocked in unproductive ventures.

2. In order to redeem the situation, the Government of India constituted a committee under the Chairmanship of Shri T. Tiwari to examine the legal and other difficulties faced by banks and financial institutions in the recovery of their dues and suggest remedial measures. The Tiwari Committee noted that the existing procedure for recovery was very cumbersome and suggested that special tribunals be set up for recovery of the dues of banks and financial institutions by following a summary procedure. The Tiwari Committee also prepared a draft of the proposed legislation which contained a provision for disposal of cases in three months and conferment of power upon the Recovery Officer for expeditious execution of orders made by adjudicating bodies.

xx xx xx

16. Thus, the Act intends to provide remedy in respect of pre – existing loans. The interpretation that the Act will apply only to future debt transactions defeats the very purpose of law of reducing the non-performing assets. This object is clearly mentioned in the Statement of Objects and Reasons. As noted in the case of Satyaivati Tondon amount of rupees one lakh twenty thousand crores was due to the banks in the year 2001 which had adversely affected the economy of the country. Obviously, the Act is intended to recover the said pre-existing loans by the machinery provided under the SARFAESI Act. The pre-existing loans are not excluded from the purview of the Act. Similarly, the object of notifying the financial institution in question is to enable such institution to avail the provisions of SARFAESI Act in respect of existing loans. This salient object of the Act does not appear to have been noticed in Subash Chandra Panda.”

42) We may also reproduce the following discussion from that judgment which completely answers most of the arguments raised by the learned counsel for the respondents:

“17. Further, the settled principle of interpretation that while the statute affecting the substantive rights is presumed to be prospective, a statute changing the forum of remedy and the procedure is retrospective has also not been kept in mind. These principles are the basis of the view taken in the Unique Engineering Works and Pradeep Kumar Gupta. The said considerations are valid and legitimate, supported by ample authority of binding precedents of the Apex Court, to which reference may be made and relevant observations extracted:

1. Rafiquennessa v. Lal Bahadur Chetri, AIR 1964 SC “9….. Mr. Chatterjee has relied upon the well-

known observations made by Wright, J. in (Re Athlumney ex parte or Wilson (1898) 2 QBD

547) when the learned Judge said that it is a general rule that when the legislature alters the rights of parties by taking away or conferring any right of action, its enactments, unless in express terms they apply to pending actions, do not affect them. He added that there was one exception to that rule, namely that where enactments merely affect procedure and do not extend to rights of action, they have been held to apply to existing rights. In order to make the statement of the law relating to the relevant rule of construction which has to be adopted in dealing with the effect of statutory provisions in this connection, we ought to add that retrospective operation of a statutory provision can be inferred even in cases where such retroactive operation appears to be clearly implicit in the provision construed in the context where it occurs. In other words, a statutory provision is held to be retroactive either when it is so declared by express terms, or the intention to make it retroactive clearly follows from the relevant words and the context in which they occur.” (emphasis added)”

43) The aforesaid discussion, thus, leads us to conclude that respondent No.1 would be treated as ‘borrower’ within the meaning of Section 2(1)(f) of the SARFAESI Act; the arrangement would be classified as ‘security arrangement’ under Section 2(1) (zb); the agreements created ‘security interest’ under Section 2(1) (zf); and the appellant became ‘secured creditor’ within the meaning of Section 2(1)(zd) of SARFAESI Act.

44) As a result, we hold that judgment of the High Court is erroneous and set aside the same. This appeal is allowed. No orders need to be passed in the contempt petitions, which stand disposed of.

………………………………………J.

(A.K. SIKRI) ………………………………………J.

(ASHOK BHUSHAN) NEW DELHI;

FEBRUARY 23, 2018.

Supreme Court Judgement Against Multi-National Chartered Accounting Firms

MASTI

The Supreme Court judgement lays down law on the exercise of power under Section 21 of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 (‘CA Act’) to initiate investigation against Multi-National Accounting Firms (MAFs) and Indian Chartered Accountancy Firms (ICAFs) having arrangement with such MAFs for breach of Code of Professional Conduct under the CA Act and also to take penal action by way of cancellation of permission granted to them by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI)

REPORTABLE

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CIVIL APPELLATE/ORIGINAL JURISDICTION

CIVIL APPEAL NO. 2422 OF 2018
(ARISING OUT OF SPECIAL LEAVE PETITION (CIVIL) NO.1808 OF
2016)

S. SUKUMAR …APPELLANT

VERSUS
THE SECRETARY, INSTITUTE OF CHARTERED
ACCOUNTANTS OF INDIA & ORS. …RESPONDENTS

WITH

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 991 OF 2013

CENTRE FOR PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION …PETITIONER

VERSUS
UNION OF INDIA & ORS. …RESPONDENTS

JUDGMENT

ADARSH KUMAR GOEL, J.

Signature Not Verified Digitally signed by MAHABIR SINGH

1. Leave granted in SLP (Civil) No.1808 of 2016 filed against the order dated 3rd August, 2015 of the High Court of Karnataka in Writ Petition No.17959 of 2012. The petition before the High Court sought direction for exercise of power under Section 21 of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 (‘CA Act’) to initiate investigation against Multi-National Accounting Firms (MAFs) and Indian Chartered Accountancy Firms (ICAFs) having arrangement with such MAFs for breach of Code of Professional Conduct under the CA Act and also to take penal action by way of cancellation of permission granted to them by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI). Since the issue raised in Writ Petition (Civil) No.991 of 2013 is identical, both the matters have been heard together. In the Writ Petition, some other connected issues have also been raised to which reference will be made in due course.

The Issue

2. The issue raised in the appeal arising out of Karnataka High Court Judgment and the Writ Petition filed directly in this Court is:

Whether the MAFs are operating in India in violation of law in force in a clandestine manner, and no effective steps are being taken to enforce the said law. If so, what orders are required to be passed to enforce the said law.

The Pleadings

3. Briefly, the averments in the High Court writ petition are: The MAFs are illegally operating in India and providing Accounting, Auditing, Book Keeping and Taxation Services. They are operating with the help of ICAFs illegally. Operations of such entities are, inter alia, in violation of Section 224 of the Companies Act, 1956, Sections 25 and 29 of the CA Act, the Code of Conduct laid down by the ICAI. Reference has been made to the Report dated 15 th September, 2003 of Study Group of the ICAI on the subject (hereinafter referred to as ‘Study Group Report’). The Study Group was constituted by the Council of the ICAI in July, 1994 to examine attempts of MAFs to operate in India without formal registration with the ICAI and without being subject to any discipline and control. This was in the wake of liberalization policy and signing of GATT by India. It was noted that the bodies corporate formed for management consultancy services were being used as a vehicle for procuring professional work for sister firms of Chartered Accountants (CAs). Members of ICAI were associating with such bodies as Directors, Managers etc. to provide escape route to MAFs. CA functions must be discharged by animate persons and not in anim bodies.

4. The concerns of various segments of CAs noted by the Study Group are :

“(a) Sharing fees with non-members;

(b) Networking and consolidation of Indian firms;

(c) Need to review the advertisement aspect;

(d) Multi disciplinary firms with other professionals;

(e) Commercial presence of multi-national accounting firms;

(f) Impact of similarity of names between accountancy firms and MAFs/Corporates engaged in MSC-Scope for reform and regulation;

(g) Strengthening knowledge base and skills;

(h) Facilitating growth of Indian CA firms & Indian CAs internationality;

(i) Perspective of the Government, corporate world and regulatory bodies and role of ICAI in shaping the view;

(j) Introduction of joint audit system;

(k) Recognition of qualifications under Clause (4) of

Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 for the purpose of promoting partnership with any persons other than the CA in practice within India or abroad;

(l) Review the concept of exclusive areas for the keeping in view the larger public interest involved so as to include internal audit within it;

(m) Conditionalities prescribed by certain financial
institutions/Governmental agencies insisting
appointment of select few firms as

auditors/concurrent auditors/consultants for their borrowers.”

5. The Study Group considered whether goal should be to focus on ethics or growth of the profession with Code of Ethics being guiding points and not barriers. Further issues were what should be the regulatory regime; whether networking could be allowed to benefit Indian CAs; whether MAFs may be required to furnish particulars about their ownership, persons responsible and other financial particulars. It was noted that the Code of Ethics under First Schedule to the CA Act prohibits sharing of fee with persons other than members of the ICAI. Only cost for obtaining assistance/advice to international affiliates could be given. Indian Firms with International Affiliates (IFIA) may be required to adhere to bench mark in regard to audit procedures, quality standards etc. Decision making and real control should be with Indian firms.

Number of audits qua each partner should be fixed. Mentioning of affiliation with any person not member of ICAI may amount to advertising which was not permissible. It could be permitted if entities were registered with ICAI. It was also suggested that concept of Multi disciplinary firms was required to be explored for rendering integrated service with suitable safeguards. Steps to upgrade knowledge were also suggested. However, it was suggested that commercial presence of MAFs should not be allowed de facto or de jure. Reference was made to Surbanes Oxley Act, 2002 in USA making a foreign public accounting firm preparing audit report to be accountable to the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board and the Securities and Exchange Commission. Thus, MAFs could not be allowed without registration with ICAI. Non Indian CAs should not authenticate any financial statement of any Indian entity. MAFs’ claim to provide audit services through affiliates amounts to indirect entry in India without requisite reciprocity for Indian accountancy firms. It was suggested that even where MAFs affiliate with Indian CA, same brand should not be allowed as in other services. Use of name identical to MAFs was brand building exercise which gave impression that Indian CA firm was not independent. Separation of identity was a must. Use of statutory visiting cards etc. must display separation of identity. Under collective label of management consultancy services, CA services should not be allowed as Code of Ethics for auditors cannot be enforced in this manner. Audit cannot be done in non professional way.

Advertisement and publicity was harmful to the cause of the profession so that user relies only on real worth of services. It is further noted that though the CAs are not allowed to share fees or profits with anyone other than a member of the institute, some of the members were lending their names to the MAFs who are non-members and enabling them to illegally operate in the field of Chartered Accountancy and sharing fees and profits with them.

Indian CAs have not been provided reciprocity in the countries to which the MAFs belong as per Section 29 of the CA Act.

6. Reference has also been made to a report on operations of MAFs in India dated 29th July, 2011 submitted by Expert Group of the ICAI (for short Expert Group Report) in the wake of the ‘Satyam Scam’, and decisions of the ICAI laying down the Code of Conduct.

The Expert Group Report noted that the MAFs are rendering services which are rendered by the CAs in terms of Section 2(2) of the CA Act such as accountancy, auditing, professional services about matters of accounting procedure, presentation or certification of financial facts or data. The MAFs are corporates/juridical persons. They solicit professional work in international brand name. They have registered Indian CA firms with ICAI with the same brand names which are their integral part.

There is no regulatory regime for their accountability. Thus, the principle of reciprocity under Section 29 of the CA Act, Section 25 prohibiting corporates from chartered accountancy practice and Code of Ethics prohibiting advertisement and fee sharing are flouted. The MAFs also violate FDI policy in the field of accounting, auditing, book keeping, taxation and legal services. Detailed reference to the said report will be made in the later part of the judgment.

7. The stand of the ICAI in the form of a status report filed before the High Court is that 161 out of 171 firms were examined by the High Powered Committee in pursuance of report of the Expert Group dated 29th July, 2011 with regard to alleged violations and some of the cases were referred to the Director (Discipline) for further action. Remaining 10 firms were in the process of being examined. Thus, the ICAI has already taken action on its part.

8. The High Court observed that in view of the stand of the ICAI, no further action was necessary and disposed of the writ petition.

9. In the writ petition filed directly in this Court, apart from the averments noted above, it has been stated that PricewaterhouseCoopers Private Limited (PwCPL) and their network audit firms operating in India, apart from other violations, have indulged in violation of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy, Reserve Bank of India Act (RBI)/Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) which requires investigation. Firms operating under the brand name of PwCPL received huge sums from abroad in violation of law and applicable policies but the concerned authorities have failed to take appropriate action. M/s. Pricewater House, Bangalore was the Auditor of the erstwhile Satyam Computer Services Limited (Satyam) for more than eight years but failed to discover the biggest accounting scandal which came to light only on confession of its Chairman in January, 2009. The said scandal attracted penalty of US Dollars 7.5 Million (approx. Rs.38 crores) from the US Regulators apart from other sanctions. Since certification by Auditors is of great importance in the matter of payment of subsidies, export incentives, grants, share of government revenue and taxes, sharing of costs and profits in PPP (Public Private Partnership) contracts etc., oversight of professionals engaged in such certification has to be as per law of the land. Accordingly, even though investigation was sought by the petitioner vide letter dated 1 st July, 2013, no satisfactory investigation has been done.

10. PwCPL is the brand under which member firms of PricewaterhouseCoopers International Limited, U.K. (PwCIL), an English private company provides professional services in respect of audit, tax and advisory services. ‘PwC India’ firms are network member firms of the PwCIL. There are 10 Audit Firms namely Price Waterhouse (PW), Lovelock and Lewes (LL), Price Waterhouse Bangalore, Price Waterhouse & Co. Bangalore, Price Waterhouse & Co. Kolkata, Price Waterhouse Delhi, Price Waterhouse & Co. Delhi, Price Waterhouse & Co. Chennai, Dalal & Shah Mumbai and Dalal & Shah Ahmedabad, besides a private limited company, namely PwCPL, who are collectively referred to as “PwC India” firms and who operate from various metros including Delhi. Their clients include Government departments, Public Sector organizations, ministries for which huge payments are made to them. They are engaged in auditing/certifying statutory compliances. They have violated Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Policy, RBI master circulars, FEMA Act and Rules. According to Notification dated May 3, 2000, under Section 47(2)(h) of FEMA Act, no person resident outside India can make investment by way of contribution to the capital of a firm or a proprietary concern or any association of persons in India without permission of the RBI. In violation of the said provision, PwC India entities received Rs.240 crores in Financial Year 2010-2011. The Chairman of PwC India confirmed the receipt of funds from Global Network. Receipt of Rs.22.90 crores in the Financial Year ended March, 2010 is reflected in the balance sheet and profit and loss account of the PwCPL. Receipt of Rs.7.97 crores is reflected in the balance sheet and profit and loss account of Dalal & Shah, Mumbai. This apart, approximately Rs.210 crores was received by PwCPL, Price Waterhouse (PW) and Lovelock and Lewes (LL). However, no action was taken for receipt of these sums in violation of law. A sum of Rs.41 crores was received by Price Waterhouse & Company, Kolkata to acquire another audit firm, Dalal & Shah, Mumbai through a circuitous route by giving interest free loans to its four partners to enable them to invest the said amount in Dalal & Shah, Mumbai in violations of the RBI Guidelines, FEMA policy and ICAI Regulations.

11. There is also violation of Companies Act. Insurance premium has been paid by three firms of PwC for benefit of other member firms which is illegal. Lovelock and Lewes (LL), a member firm of PwC India failed to point out the high level of NPAs, in its audit report, resulting in Global Trust Bank (GTB) being forced to merge with Oriental Bank of Commerce in 2004. This happened due to accumulated losses of GTB. LL was also found guilty of manipulating share prices and falsification of accounts by Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO). PwC has been found guilty of accounting scandals outside India.

12. After making the above averments, the petition suggests that falsification of accounts should be made a non-bailable offence to ensure effective governance and to avoid potential loss of revenue to the public exchequer. An independent regulator should be appointed for the auditors. Prayer has been made for investigation into the above allegations against the PwCPL and their network Audit Firms operating in India sharing the brand name of PwC.

13. To sum up, the case of the petitioners is:

(i) The MAFs violate provisions of Sections 25 and 29 of the CA Act, the Code of Conduct laid down by the ICAI, Companies Act, the FDI Policy as highlighted in report of the Study Group of the ICAI dated 15th September, 2003 and the report of the Expert Group of the ICAI dated 29th July, 2011. Regulatory framework was required to be re-visited to cover the gap in the existing regulatory framework and challenge on account of operations of MAFs as noted in the said reports. Audit functions were required to be separated with a separate oversight body.

(ii) PwC Services BV, Netherlands in violation of law, made investment of Rs.41.42 crores through PwC, Kolkata to acquire Dalal & Shah, Mumbai which is an audit firm through a circuitous route by giving interest free loans to its partners allowing them to invest the said amount with Dalal & Shah, Mumbai.

This is clear offence under the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act. It is also an offence under the FEMA, the Chartered Accountants Act, and RBI Master Circulars.

(iii) The PwC Services, BV Netherlands remitted Rs.240 crores to various PwC entities in India for ‘enhancement of skills’. Payment of Income Tax on the said amounts does not legalise the remittance. The remittance shows that the foreign company has control over Indian Firms and is thus indirectly running chartered accountancy business in India and also getting its return on the said amount.

(iv) There is falsification of accounts with regard to insurance premium for a 280 crore policy by PwC firms in India in violation of Companies Act, 1956.

(v) PwC is responsible for the violations by

Satyam scam, failure of the Global Trust

Bank (GTB) and UB Group (Kingfisher

Airlines) for which action ought to be taken.

(vi) SFIO and CBI have found PwC guilty. Still, the PwC firms have not been prosecuted and have been awarded Government contracts such as GST Suvidha Provider for GST Network, consultancy contract by the Kerala Government for preparing master plan to connect Kochi with industrial corridor of south India.

14. The prayers of the petitioners on above basis are:

(a) ICAI must take immediate action for deregistration of these firms in terms of their own report of 2011 which they had themselves accepted.

(b) These audit firms ought to be prosecuted for offences under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.

(c) PwC firms ought to be prosecuted under FEMA, 1999 regarding the payment of Rs.240 crores and Rs.42 crores by the ED.

(d) PwC Kolkata firm and partners need to be prosecuted under the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act.

(e) Investigation and action on part of ICAI and Ministry of Corporate Affairs with regard to the falsification of accounts and wrong accounting of the insurance policy of Rs.280 crores that was utilized by PwC Bangalore without paying any premium.

(f) A CBI investigation into the receipt of Rs.240 crores so that the real purpose of such receipts is known and necessary action may be taken.

High Powered Committee Expert Group Report dated 29 th July, 2011

15. In its report dated 29th July, 2011 on Operation of Multinational Network Accounting Firms (MAFs) in India, the expert group constituted by the ICAI examined the issues concerning operation of MAFs in India. The group was constituted in the context of corporate fraud of high magnitude revealed by the statement of Chairman of Satyam. The ICAI sought curbing of undesirable activities/operations of MAFs. The Ministry held a meeting with the representatives of the ICAI to identify the issues. Thereafter, the following issues were referred to the Expert Group by the High Powered Committee of the ICAI:

“(a) Manner in which certain Indian CA firms, hold out to public that they are actually MAFs in India, the manner in which assignments are allotted, determination of nexus/linkage. The representatives of certain Indian CA firms carry two visiting cards one of Indian CA firm and another of a multinational entity. They represent the multinational entity and seek work for Indian CA firm.

(b) Name used by auditor in/his report – The basic question was whether the auditors of M/s. Satyam had correctly mentioned the name of their firm in the audit report.

(c) Terms and conditions and cost payable for use of international brand name – No international firm will allow its name to be used by all and sundry. The question is what is the consideration whether it is determined as a percentage of fee or profits and whether it is within the framework of Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, Regulations framed, thereunder Code of Conduct and Ethics.

(d) Nature of extra benefits accrued to the Indian CA firms having foreign affiliation.

(e) How the MAFs placed their foot in India – Long back in a meeting with RBI it was informed that the MAFs entered in India to set up representative offices. No documents are available as regards the terms and conditions set out while granting them permission to operate in India.

However, the RBI vide its letter
No.Ref.DBS.ARS.No.744/08:91:008 (ICAI)/
2003-2004 dated 23rd March, 2004 inter

alia, mentioned that “RBI has not permitted any foreign audit firm to set up office or to carry out any activity in India under the current exchange control regulations.”

(f) Contravention of permission originally granted by Government – What was the original permission given for these firms to enter into India and subsequently whether they are adhering to the terms and conditions of that permission? If contravention was found to take up with Government/FIPB – for approaching Government or FIPB, ICAI must have information as to the nature of permission given. As already mentioned, no documents are available indicating the nature of permission granted. What is the current position of international trade in accounting and related services? The opening up of accounting and related services, can be linked to reciprocal opening up by developed countries.

(g) Additional powers required by ICAI to curb the malpractices – If under the existing legislation, ICAI does not have enough powers to curb this practice, whether they would need more powers. A separate proposal for amendment of Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 has been sent by the Council to the Government seeking additional powers.”

16. It was noted that some of the MAFs are active in India and are rendering services which are provided by CAs without registration with the Institute. Certain MAFs are corporate or juridical persons with significant commercial presence in India and are rendering assurance services. They solicit professional work including audit work by including international brand name in their name. With the same brand names certain Indian CA firms were registered with the ICAI. They hold out to public that they are actually MAFs in India, whereas to the ICAI they hold out that they are purely Indian CA firms having no relationship with foreign entities. The government, regulators and the ICAI must ensure that such wrong impression is not permitted. Entities other than CAs in practice should be prohibited from providing auditing and assurance services in absence of their regulation under a law. Indian CAs are not getting mutual treatment in other countries, while the MAFs continue to operate in India through the Indian CA firms. Entities having similar name as that of MAFs, which entered through automatic/FIPB route, are rendering Chartered Accountancy services contrary to the policy of not permitting Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the field of accounting, auditing and book keeping services, taxation services and legal services. The Institute requested the Department of Company Affairs to take the following action:

“(i) for reviewing the existing situation for ensuring reciprocal advantage in favour of the Indian accounting profession;

(ii) to take appropriate action against MAFs if
found to be in violation including
cancellation/revoking/ withdrawal the

permission already granted to such foreign entities;

(iii) to ensure that the non-compliance of the terms & conditions of the permission granted by the Government to such MAFs is dealt with effectively;

(iv) to prohibit the MAFs/consultancy firms which have set up commercial presence either as a corporate entity or otherwise from defying the restrictions in terms of the Government policy both in letter & spirit; and

(v) to ensure that the names of the companies which are same or similar to the names of MAFs should not be allowed to continue to operate in India.”

17. The Institute called for information from the Indian CA firms perceived to be having international affiliations to examine whether they are functioning within the framework of CA profession. The exercise resulted in finding out 171 names of firms but the said firms were reluctant to submit copies of agreements with foreign entities and their tax returns. Certain CA firms submitted the documents by masking certain portions contained in their agreements, partnership deeds and assessment orders/income tax returns claiming confidentiality and commercially sensitive nature of the documents. Some of the firms did not give the details.

18. The group considered network groups as ‘A’ to ‘D’. With regard to ‘A’, it was observed that the multinational entity had permitted the participating firms in the network to use the brand name. The relationship between members and firms and how these are governed from the same offices under common management and control was not disclosed. The linkage was clear from the data disclosed on the website. Firms received financial grants from non-CA firms contrary to the prohibition for the members of the Institute to receive any part of profits from non-member of the Institute. The networking firms have made remittances to a multinational entity, sharing their revenue purportedly towards subscription fees, technology cost and administration cost etc. However, the break-ups of costs were not furnished. The cost excluded marketing, publicity and advertising which was not allowed as per the CA Act. The data was not furnished to support the claim that remittances are only in respect of such matters and not related to the volume of business generated through the efforts of the multinational entities. A total and full disclosure was not made in spite of repeated directions. The domain name used by all the firms in the network was identical to the name of the multinational entity which supports the view that they hold out that these firms were part of international network. Some of the firms operate from the same premises from where their international affiliate also operates.

They share the same telephone and fax numbers. They share human resources with other firms. Articled Assistants are also shared without following the restrictions imposed by the ICAI.

19. With regard to group ‘B’, the multinational entity had executed sub-licence agreements with the Indian firms. They stated that they are not sharing their fees or profits with any multinational entity but reimbursement of costs relating to certain central facilities and levies are made annually. The CA firms used name of the international entity in their E-mail IDs. The E-mail ID and the domain name resembled the name of the multinational entity. Thus, in the same manner, as in respect of network ‘A’ the CA firms in network ‘B’ hold out that they are part of the international network.

They share same premises, same telephone and fax number. They made remittances annually to the multinational entity sharing their revenue with multinational entity which they have claimed to be towards reimbursement of cost towards central facilities and levies.

They do not provide break-up which may show that the cost included marketing, publicity and advertising.

20. The firms in the Network ‘C’ are also using the MAF’s name as part of domain name in their E-mail IDs, which is displayed in the visiting cards of the partners of the firms.

21. Similar was the position with regard to Network ‘D’. The firms in Network ‘D’ also used the name of multinational entity as domain name.

22. The Council has prescribed maximum limit for statutory audit and tax audit which a member in practice can undertake in a year.

But, by sub-contracting the work to other firms, the firms are undertaking more than the prescribed work leading to deterioration of quality of performance.

23. The member firms are required to refer the work among themselves. In respect of some firms, referral fee is payable and receivable. Agreements also provided for use of name and logo.

Payment/receipt of referral fee is prohibited as per code of conduct applicable to CAs.

24. The group noted that firms have names identical to the names of MAFs operating in India but in absence of complete data, a conclusive finding could not be recorded as to violation of the CA Act with regard to sharing of fees or profits with non-members, securing business through solicitation/publicity. International affiliations with entities which do not follow the same Code of Ethics as applicable to Indian CA firms vitiate the level playing field with other Indian CA firms. Control of the Indian CA firm is effectively placed in the hands of non-members/companies and foreign entities.

25. Some of the observations in the report are:

“4.2 The Council of ICAI has deliberated that some of the MAFs are active in India and are rendering services such as assurance services, taxation services, etc. normally provided by Chartered Accountants, without registration with the Institute and, without being subject to any disciplinary and regulatory control on the ethical and independent issues. Certain MAFs either as corporate and other juridical persons with the Institute brand name were given permission by the other regulators/Government for doing consultancy business in India. These entities have established significant commercial presence in India and are rendering assurance services. These private limited companies in certain cases solicit professional work including audits by using the international brand name and projecting large experience, infrastructure and international database including turnover, manpower size, technical expertise and experience in other countries.

These private limited companies work under the name and style/trade name/brand name of well known MAFs and in certain cases also co-brand multinational name with certain Indian CA including by making presentations and organizing mega public programmes. In fact these firms and individuals employ with them as Directors or partners or in other capacity and hold out to the public that they are MAFs. In view of their well known brand and presence internationally the corporate sector, the Government and the society at large and sometimes even the regulators carry a wrong impression as if these private limited companies are in fact MAFs and the services being provided by these private limited companies are actually services being provided by such MAFs.

4.3 Certain Indian CA firms and private limited companies associated with them hold out to public that they are actually MAFs in India whereas to the ICAI/regulators, they hold out that they are purely Indian CA firms having no relationship with foreign entities.

4.4 It is important for the Government, regulators and the ICAI to ensure that such wrong impression is not permitted and all entities other than Chartered Accountants in practice and CA firms should be actually prohibited directly or indirectly from providing auditing and assurance services, as these are required to be regulated in the public interest. The very objective of having the profession relating to accountancy under specific Act of Parliament, incorporating therein a strict disciplinary and ethical code was to ensure that there is no dilution of the professional standards and services are provided in a regulated manner.

4.5 In certain cases, joint venture agreements, MOUs, foreign collaboration agreements, shareholders agreements, private equity participations and side letters are exchanged between parties mandating appointment auditors as prescribed by international parent. In certain cases public sector undertakings, Government departments/Central and State Governments advertise for various professional services wherein the basic eligibility requirement tends to favour Multinational Network Accounting firms or other corporate entities. It has also been observed that auditors have been replaced by Indian CA firms networked with Multinational Network Accounting firms apparently for no professional reasons.

4.6 The ICAI has been pursuing with the accounting bodies in different countries for recognition of its qualification and relaxation for its members for entry level requirements like appearance in certain papers such as accounting, auditing as well as training requirements giving due credit to the ICAI’s educational and training curriculum. In addition, the Indian Chartered Accountants face various invisible/non-professional barriers like visa, citizenship and residency requirements, procedural impediments to provide services in such countries. While the Institute has been pursuing vigorously for recognition of its qualification-for ensuring level playing field for Indian Chartered Accountants whereas the countries concerned are not showing a sense of seriousness and urgency which these matters deserve. Indian Chartered Accountants are not getting a fair, reasonable and mutual treatment which they deserve. Since MAFs, in corporate or other form, are already commercially present and operating in India on the basis of holding out as MAFs/the Indian CA Firms and private limited companies may be de jure owned and managed to Indian Chartered Accountants, whereas de facto these are fully governed MAFs having headquarters in developed countries, who are denying a level playing field to Indian Chartered Accountants in their country by the restrictions as explained herein. As a result the negotiating capacity of India accounting services favouring the Indian accountants has been significantly reduced. In fact, this has also adversely affected the bargaining capacity of the Government of India for Indian accounting profession under the ongoing negotiations under the WTO/General Agreement of Trade in Services (GATS).

xxxx 4.8 However, it has been noticed that the entities having similar name as that of MAFs, which entered through automatic/FIPB route for rendering management consultancy services (as defined in CPC

865), are transgressing the permission so granted and are rendering taxation services (CPC 863), auditing, accounting and book keeping services (CPC 862) and legal services (CPC 861). Instances brought to the notice of the Study Team constituted by the Council in April, 1995 and the Study Group constituted by the Council in February, 2002 are placed at Annexure-III. Extracts taken from the website pages of some of the MAFs are given at Annexure-IV.

4.9 It is noted that as per the policy of the Government of India, Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is not permitted in the field of accounting, auditing and book keeping services, taxation services and legal services and no commitment had been made by India for opening of such services under the WTO/GATS. However, some entities were not only providing services through their own establishment (signifying their commercial presence i.e., Mode-3) in India but also through service providers in India particularly for those services like auditing which cannot be rendered by them under the relevant laws of the country.

xxx 4.16 The 171 firms from whom documents/details were called for by and large furnished the documents that were called for. However, certain CA firms have submitted the documents by masking certain portions contained in their agreements, partnership deeds and assessment orders/income tax returns claiming confidentiality and commercially sensitive nature of the documents. The financial details were asked with a view to confirm compliance of these firms with the code of ethics in regard to sharing of fees, inward and outward remittances, nature of expenses, financial dealing with non-members, nature of payment, nature of revenue sharing of fees belonging to non-members and to identify activities not permitted within the framework of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, other laws including Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 1976, Code of Ethics and Conduct. Masking/omission of certain portions was construed as non-compliance with the directions of the Institute, and such firms which had masked certain portions were asked to additionally submit copies of their financial statements i.e. Income & Expenditure Account and Balance Sheets or Statement of Affairs including tax audit reports for the last 3 years. However, these firms, instead of submitting unmasked and complete information, had been questioning the logic/reasoning behind asking such data, which according to the firms are commercially sensitive/confidential. Despite reminders, some of the firms had not submitted unmasked/complete details.

xxx 5A.8 Observations :

(i) The multinational entity has granted permission to the participating firms in the network to use the brand name. This is notwithstanding the fact whether the firms have signed the License Agreement with the entity or not. The relationship between members and firms how these are governed from same offices under common management and control is not disclosed. The data disclosed on the website, however, clearly brings out the linkage.

(ii) Though some of the participating firms in the Network ‘A’ have not signed, the Verein document of Name License Agreement yet while making remittances to the multinational entity, the revenue of the entire network is taken into account.

(iii) The Verein document makes a mention of Supplemental Regulation but while submitting documents to the Institute the firms in Network ‘A’ have not submitted a copy thereof.

(iv) The networking firms in Network ‘A’ have received financial grants from a non-CA firm. A member of the Institute is prohibited from receiving any part of profits from a non-member of the Institute. Such an act on the part of a member/firm seems to be in violation of Item (3) of Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act 1949.

(v) The networking firms in Network ‘A’ have made remittances to the multinational entity, sharing their revenue with multinational entity, which they have claimed to be towards subscription fees, technology cost including cost of licenses – obtained for software, budgeted expenses, cost of administration etc. However, the firms have not provided break-up/computation and whether the cost includes cost towards marketing, publicity and advertising the products and services in India as well as abroad and any other cost which is not allowed as per the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, Regulations framed thereunder and Code of Ethics. The firms in Network ‘A’ have also not furnished any data in support of their claim that the money remitted by them to the multinational entity is in respect of above matters only and that the same in no way relates to the volume of business generated through the efforts of the multinational entity and through use of brand name. A total and full disclosure in this regard has not been made in spite of repeated directions by the High Powered Committee/Group on the basis of directions of the Council.

(vi) The Verein document lay an obligation on the member firms in Network A “to make every reasonable effort to refer clients to other member firms”. A member of the Institute is prohibited from securing any professional business by means which are not open to a Chartered Accountant. However, they are required to follow the networking guidelines of the Institute. Such an act on the part of a member/firm seems to be in violation of Item (S) 1 of Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.

(vii) The networking firms in Network A and all their personnel are using the domain name identical to the name of the multinational entity in their email IDs and the same is displayed in their visiting cards. This clearly supports holding out by these firms in Network A that they are part of the international Network A of MAFs. Some of these firms operate from the same premises from where their international affiliate also operates. They share the same telephone and fax nos. thus establishing that they are one and the same. The Indian firms in Network A and MAFs are de facto the same entities providing assurance, management and related services and as such their operations seem to circumvent the provisions of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 and Regulations framed thereunder. A member of the Institute is prohibited from disclosing the affiliation with any international entity. In this regard, the Council, at its 172nd meeting held in January, 1995, while agreeing with the recommendation of the then Committee on Ethical Standards and Unjustified Removal of Auditors that the use of expression/words, “In Association with ….”, Associates of ……..”, Correspondents of ……” etc. on the stationery, letter-heads, visiting cards and professional documents of the firm of CAs was not permissible in view of the provisions of Item (7) of Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act,1949, decided that it should not be permitted irrespective of whether the name sought to be used is the name of an Indian firm or a foreign firm.

(viii) The networking firms in Network A are sharing their human resources with other firms in the network. However, it has been possible to ascertain whether the articled assistances are also being rotated among the firms. It may be mentioned that articled assistants are assigned to a member, whose obligation is to train them. As such, the articled assistances cannot be allowed to be utilized by any other member. However, to address this issue, there exists a provision under Regulation 54 of the Chartered Accountants, Regulations, 1988 enabling secondment of articled assistances with a view to provide the articled assistants the opportunity of gaining practical experience in areas where the principal may not be in a position to provide the same. Such secondment is allowed under the Regulations with certain restrictions and conditionalities and the same is required to be sent to the Institute for records within thirty days from the date of commencement of training on secondment.

xxxx 5B.7 Observations :

(i) The CA firms in Network B and all their personnel are using the domain name identical to the name of the multinational entity in their email IDs, and the same is displayed in the visiting cards. This clearly supports holding out by these firms in Network C that they are part of the international Network C of MAFs. Some of these firms operate from the same premises from where their international affiliate also operate. They share the same telephone and fax nos. thus establishing that they are one and the same. The Indian firms in Network B and MAFs are de facto the same entities providing assurance, management and related services and as such their operations seem to circumvent the provisions of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 and Regulations framed thereunder. A member of the Institute is prohibited from disclosing his affiliation with any international entity. In this regard, the Council, at its 172 nd meeting held in January, 1995, while agreeing with the recommendation of the then Committee on Ethical Standards and Unjustified Removal of Auditors that the use of expression/words, “In Association with ……..”, “Associates of …………..”, Correspondents of …………” etc. on the stationery, letter-heads, visiting cards and professional documents of the firm of CAs., was not permissible in view of the provisions of Item (7) of Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, decided that it should not be permitted irrespective of whether the name ought to be used is the name of an Indian firm or a foreign firm.

(ii) The CA firms in Network B have made remittances annually to the multinational entity sharing their revenue with multinational entity which they have claimed to be towards reimbursement of cost towards central facilities and levies. However, the firms have not provided break-up/computation and whether the cost includes cost towards marketing/publicity and advertising the products and services in India as well as abroad and any other cost which is not allowed as per the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, Regulations framed thereunder and the Code of Ethics. The firms in Network B have also not furnished any data in support of their claim that the money remitted by them to the multinational is in respect of above matters only and that the same in no way relates to the vote of business generated through the efforts of the multinational entity and through use of brand name. A total and full disclosure in this regard has not been made in spite of repeated directions by the High Powered Committee/Group on the basis of directions of the Council.

(iii) The networking firms in Network A are sharing their human resources with other firms in the network. However, it has not been possible to ascertain whether the articled assistants are also being rotated among the firms. It may be mentioned that articled assistants are assigned to a member, whose obligation is to train them. As such, the articled assistants cannot be allowed to be utilized by any other member. However, to address this issue, there exists a provision under Regulation, 1988 enabling secondment of articled assistants with a view to provide the articled assistants the opportunity of gaining practical experience in areas where the principal may not be in a position to provide the same. Such secondment is allowed under the Regulations with certain restrictions and conditionalities and the same is required to be sent to the Institute for records within thirty days from the date of commencement of training on secondment.

(iv) The obligations set out in respect of the CA firms in Network B as per the sub-licensee agreement give a clear indication that the CA firms are under the management and supervision of a non-CA firm for matters such as admission of partners, merger, purchase of assets, etc. xxxx 5C.4 Observations :

(i) The CA firms in Network C have amounts to the multinational entity, which they claim to be on account of actual and allocable cost for activities and services provided, however, the firms have not provided break up/computation and whether the cost includes cost towards marketing, publicity and advertising of the products and services in India as well as abroad and any other cost which is not allowed as per the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, Regulations framed thereunder and Code of Ethics. The firms in Network C have also not furnished any data in support of their claim that the money remitted by them to the multinational entity is in respect of above matters only and that the same in no way relates to the volume of business generated through the efforts of the multinational entity and through use of brand name. A total and full disclosure in this regard has not been made in spite of repeated directions by the High Powered Committee/Group on the basis of directions of the Council.

(ii) The firms in Network C have admitted that the global network identifies broad market opportunities, develops strategies, strengthens network’s internal products and promotes international brand. The member firms in India also gain access to brand and marketing materials developed by their overseas affiliate. This amounts to indirectly soliciting professional work and securing professional business by means which are not open to a Chartered Accountant.

(iii) The firms in Network C have mentioned that they have joined the network and formed different firms in different cities to overcome the limitation on number of partners.

(iv) The network C firms have entered into an agreement for sharing of resources. Sharing of human resources includes articled assistants also, as confirmed by one of their then partners, in a statement given by him to the members of the Committee. It may be mentioned that articled assistants are assigned to a member, whose obligation is to train them. As such the articled assistants cannot be allowed to be utilized by any other member. However, to address this issue, there exists a provision under Regulation 54 of the Chartered Accountants Regulations, 1988 enabling secondment of articled assistants with a view to provide the articled assistants the opportunity of gaining practical experience in areas where the principal may not be in a position to provide the same. Such secondment is allowed under the Regulations with certain restrictions and conditionalities and the same is required to be sent to the Institute for records within thirty days from the date of commencement of training on secondment.

(v) The firms in the Network C and all its personnel are using the MAFs name as part of domain name in their email IDs, which is displayed in the visiting cards of the partners of these firms as well as the CA employees. This clearly supports holding out by these firms in Network C that they are part of the International Network C of MAFs. Some of these firms operate from the same premises from where their international affiliate also operates. They share the same telephone and fax nos. thus establishing that they are one and the same. The Indian firms and MAFs are de facto the same entities providing assurance/management and related services and as such their operations seem to circumvent the provisions of the Chartered Accountant Act, 1949 and Regulations framed thereunder. A member of the Institute is prohibited from disclosing his affiliation with any International entity. In this regard, the Council, at its 172nd meeting held in January, 1995, while agreeing with the recommendation of then Committee on Ethical Standards and Unjustified Removal of Auditors that the use of expression/words, “In Association with ……..”, “Associates of …………”, Correspondents of ………” etc. on the stationery, letter-heads, visiting cards and professional documents of the firm of CAs, was not permissible in view of the provisions of Item (7) of Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, decided that it should not be permitted irrespective of whether the name sought to be used is the name of an Indian firm or a foreign firm.

(vi) As per the Name License Agreement, the CA firm in Network C shall be liable for and will indemnify the Business Trust against any and availability, loss, damage, cost, legal cost and other expenses of any nature suffered, or incurred by the Business Trust arising out of any dispute against the Business Trust by a third party.

(vii) The service as defined in the agreement with the Trust granting license for use of name, prescribes the services which will be covered by the said Trust and rendered by the CA firm. This includes audit, assurance as well as tax advisory services.

(viii) The letterheads and the visiting cards furnished by the firm in Network C do not mention anywhere that it is a firm of Chartered Accountants.

5D.6 Observations :

(i) The firms in Network D have a management services agreement, technical services agreements, regulations and name license agreements with other entities, copies of which have not been furnished by the firms.

(ii) The firms in Network D and all their personnel have been using the name of multinational entity as domain name in their email IDs, which is displayed in the visiting cards used by the partners of these firms as well as their CA employees. This clearly supports holding out by these firms that they are part of the international Network D of MAFs. Some of these firms operate from the same premises from where their international affiliate also operates. They share the same telephone and fax nos. thus indicating that they are one and the same. The Indian firms and MAFs are de facto the same entities providing assurance, management and related services and as such their operations seem to circumvent the provisions of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 and Regulations framed thereunder. A member of the Institute is prohibited from disclosing his affiliation with any international entity. In this regard, the Council at its 172nd meeting held in January, 1995, while agreeing with the recommendation of the then Committee on Ethical Standards and Unjustified Removal of Auditors that the use of expression/words, “In Association with ……….”, “Associates of …………”, Correspondents of ………” etc. on the stationery, letter-heads, visiting cards and professional documents of the firm of CAs, was not permissible in view of the provisions of Item (7) of Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, decided that it should not be permitted irrespective of whether the name sought to be used is the name of an Indian firm or a foreign firm.

(iii) The firms in the Network D have signed an agreement for sharing of human resources; however, it has not been possible to ascertain whether the articled assistants are assigned to a member, whose obligation is to train them. As such, the articled assistants cannot be allowed to be utilized by any other member. However, to address this issue/there exists a provision under Regulation 54 of the Chartered Accountants Regulations, 1988 enabling secondment assistants with a view to provide the articled assistants the opportunity of gaining practical experience in areas where the principal may not be in a position to provide the same. Such secondment is allowed under the Regulations with certain restrictions and conditionalities and the same is required to be sent to the Institute for records within thirty days from the date of commencement of training on secondment.

(iv) One of the network firms in Network D, though is yet to sign the agreement with the multinational entity, but has already been operating as part of the multinational entity’s network and complies with the obligations.

(v) The amount of remittance made by firms in Network D to the multinational entity (exceeding Rs.XXXX million in a year) has been disclosed. However, the firms in Network D have not provided break up computation and whether the cost includes cost towards marketing, publicity and advertising the products and services in India as well as abroad and any other cost which is not allowed as per the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, Regulations framed thereunder and Code of Ethics. The firms have also not furnished any data in support of their claim that the money remitted by them to the multinational entity is in respect of above matters only and the same in no way relates to the volume of business generated through the efforts of the multinational entity and through use of brand name. A total and full disclosure in this regard has not been made in spite of repeated directions by the High Powered Committee/Group on the basis of directions of the Council.

xxx

6. Findings 6.1 The Committee/Group with a view to ascertain compliance with the various aspects of Code of Ethics had received documents/details listed in para 4.13 hereinabove, from 171 firms. Based on information received, it was found absence of affiliation etc. to

135. Of these, nearly firms submitted data in entirety. Other firms submitted most of the data, such as financial that for various reasons the number of firms actually 73% of the firms submitted the data masking of withholding most of the important data, such as financial figures, profit sharing, capital contribution etc. primarily on the grounds of commercial sensitiveness/confidentiality of the data.

6.2 In the absence of complete set of documents such as complete copy of agreements between some of the Indian CA firms and their international affiliates/network along with annexures referred thereto, networking agreement, internal regulations, service agreements, statute of international affiliate etc. it was not possible to draw conclusive inference as to violation of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 with reference to sharing of fees or profits with non-members, sharing profits of non-members, securing business through means not open to Chartered Accountants, solicitation, direct or indirect publicity etc. This shall require proper examination under the relevant provisions of Sections 21, 22 and Schedules framed thereunder.

6.3 Most of these networks are created/established outside India and are functioning under different set of ethical and regulatory guidelines. The India CA firms having international affiliations are subject to regulatory jurisdiction of ICAI and are required to follow the Code of Ethics applicable to Chartered Accountants in India. However, due to the dichotomy of other entities operating in close association with the Indian CA firms, often permitting common brand name/using of logos, coupled with leveraging on international resources etc., is vitiating the level playing field with other Indian CA firms.

6.4 Most of these firms have a name license agreement to use International brand name. One of the terms of such agreement is that apart from common professional standards etc., the Indian affiliates shall harmonize their policies etc. with the global policies of the network. In this manner, matters such as selection and appointment of partners, acquisition of assets, investment in capital etc. are regulated through the means of such agreements and at time even the representative voting is held by an aligned private limited company rather than the CA firms themselves. As a consequence of this, the control of the Indian CA firms is effectively placed in the hands of non-members/companies foreign entities. The desirability of such a practice from the point of view of independence needs to be examined in the light of Code of Ethics and Schedules to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 and Sections 21 and 22 thereof.

6.5 In respect of some firms with names approved by Institute e.g. “XYZ & Co., Patna”, the partnership deeds sent by the said firm revealed that the name of the firm is given as “XYZ & Co.” and not as “XYZ & Co. Patna” which is the name registered by the Institute. This means that the firm has submitted to the Institute the partnership deed of a firm by the name “XYZ & Co.”, whereas the partnership deed supposed to have been submitted should be that of “XYZ & Co., Patna”. Letters were written to such firms requesting them to submit the appropriate partnership deed. The first have replied that it was an inadvertent mistake on their part and on the part of the Institute which had approved a trade/firm name with city name as the suffix.

6.6 The firms, M/s WZ, Patna and M/s XYZ & Co. Patna, vide form No.117 sought approval of the Council of the Institute for the firm name, ‘XYZ, Patna’ and ‘XYZ & Co., Patna’ respectively. The subsequent forms 18 filed by the firm, for change in the constitution, also mention the firm name as such. However, the partners of the firm, while affixing their signatures on the audit reports, mention the name of the firm as ‘XYZ’ and ‘XYZ & Co.’ respectively. The audit reports of companies, which were audited by them, have been signed on behalf of ‘M/s XYZ’ and not ‘M/s XYZ Patna’ and by ‘M/s. XYZ & Co.’ and not ‘M/s. XYZ & Co. Patna’. It is an accepted fact that M/s XYZ, Patna and M/s XYZ & Co. Patna have carried out audits of certain companies whose shareholders have appointed M/s XYZ as the auditors. M/s XYZ and M/s XYZ & Co., by allowing the partners of M/s XYZ, Patna and M/s XYZ & Co. Patna respectively to audit the accounts of clients have rendered the audited accounts invalid ab-initio.

6.7 It is noted that Item (1) of Part I of the Second Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, which deals with professional misconduct in relation to Chartered Accountants in practice, mentions that a chartered accountant in practice shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct, if he discloses information acquired in the course of his professional engagement to any person other than his client so engaging him, without the consent of his client or otherwise than as required by any law for the time being in force. The auditors, by allowing the audit to be conducted by an unauthorized firm, without the consent of the client, which was not appointed as the statutory auditors, may have allowed all information relating to the audit being passed on to the said firm, thus breaching the aforesaid Item, for which both the firms which were appointed and the one which carried out the audit, may be in violation of the Code of Ethics.

6.8 In response to Institute’s letter, some firms have furnished details/documents after masking or eliminating certain portion such as financial figures, profit sharing ratio, capital contribution etc. The Institute has sent numerous letters to these CA firms for providing the information particularly, copies of agreements/contracts they have with their international affiliates/networks with complete annexures, partnership deed with complete annexures and schedules mentioned therein, assessment orders and/or tax returns, financial statements i.e. income and expenditure statement, balance sheet or statement of affairs including tax audit reports. As stated earlier, most of the firms have submitted copies of agreements/contracts, partnership deeds, assessment orders or income-tax returns but around 27% of firms have not furnished the information and have masked/blackened/not provided the important information. It may be further stated that some of the firms instead of complying with the directions of the Institute, have questioned the logic/reasoning behind seeking copies of income-tax returns, which according to them are commercially sensitive/confidential. One group of firms belonging to one network has cited two legal opinions that they have obtained in this regard and have declined to submit unmasked details.

However, they have sought personal hearing. As mentioned earlier, the Group considered this matter and noted that documents have been called in pursuance of the directions given by the Council and that detailed reasoning for calling of documents has also been given to the firms. Hence, the Group felt that it would not be within its powers to override directions of the Council and grant any concession to certain firms.

6.9 Section 2(2) of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 defines the term ‘to be in practice’. Pursuant to Section 2(2) above, the Council of the Institute has passed a resolution permitting Chartered Accountants in practice to render entire range of management consultancy and other services. The members of the Institute are governed by a Code of Ethics which is mandatory for every member of the Institute. The services rendered by the multinational entities in India are also to the nature of management consultancy (including financial services, valuation, audit and assurance services etc.) and other related services which are carried on through the medium of private limited companies which are carried using the internationally known accounting firm’s name. Since these entities employ Chartered Accountants as well as non-Chartered Accountants for discharging various responsibilities, a misleading Impression is created that the services rendered by the private limited companies are in fact rendered by a Multinational Accounting Firm. In fact, this is not so as the company rendering such services is neither registered with ICAI nor is governed by any ethical code or regulatory framework.”

26. Accordingly, the recommendations were made to the effect that the Council should consider action against the firms which had not given the full information; consider action against the firms who are sharing revenue with multinational entity/consulting entity in India which may include cost of marketing, publicity and advertising as against the ethics of CAs; action should be considered against the firms who had received financial grant from the multinational entities in spite of prohibition against the CA firms. A member is not allowed to accept any share, commission or brokerage from a non-member unless such non-member is a member of a professional body with prescribed qualifications. Further recommendation is that action be taken against the audit firms distributing its work to other firms and allowing them access to all confidential information without the consent of the client; require the CA firms to maintain necessary data about the remittances made and received on account of networking arrangement or sharing of fee; consider action against firms being paid or offered referral fee; it should be made mandatory for all firms who enter into any kind of affiliation/arrangement with any foreign entity to disclose their international affiliation/arrangement every year to the Institute;

Council should consider action against the firms using name and logo of international networks; action should also be considered for securing professional business by means which are not open to CAs in India. The Council should also issue public statement that without specific approval of the Council, by a notification under Section 29(2) of the CA Act, no MAF can directly or indirectly operate in India through any agreement or arrangement with any Indian entity/firm of CAs. No international firm or entity should be permitted to hold out to public that they are operating in India as a MAF as part of their network. No Indian CA firm should be permitted to pay any part of their profit or fee or other receipts to any person other than a member of ICAI or a firm owned by them by way of cost or percentage except payment for specific professional fee. The Council may request the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Reserve Bank of India and other relevant Ministries/Departments to take appropriate action so that the recommendations can be implemented to engage the services of accounting firms registered with ICAI. Only CAs and CA firms registered with ICAI should be permitted to provide audit and assurance services. Wherever MAFs are operating in India, directly or indirectly, they should not engage in any audit and assurance services without ‘No Objection’ and permission from ICAI and RBI. Instructions may be issued that any joint venture agreement, MOU, foreign collaboration agreement, stakeholders agreement, private equity fund condition, venture capital fund condition or side letters prescribing for appointment of a specific Chartered Accountant or a CA Firm or any other entity are illegal and against public interest.

Stand of the ICAI

27. ICAI in its response submitted that the function of the institute was to regulate the profession of chartered accountancy and to take action against misconduct of its members under The Chartered Accountants (Procedure of Investigations of Professional and Other Misconduct and Conduct of Cases) Rules, 2007. The accounting professionals had significant role in the economy of the country. The economy of India had witnessed two major securities scams in 1992 and 2001. The CA Act was amended on the recommendation of the Joint Parliamentary Committee which enquired into the stock market scams including the high level committee on the ‘Corporate Audit and Governance’ under the chairmanship of Shri Naresh Chandra which examined the Auditor-Company relationship and disciplinary mechanism for the Auditors. Amendment was proposed by the Council of the Institute to establish a Disciplinary Directorate headed by Director (Discipline).

28. In response to the grievance that no action was taken against PwCPL and their network audit firms in India, the ICAI submitted that its Disciplinary Directorate had already taken cognizance of the information in the Article dated 17 th January, 2012 in the Times of India “Sundry Income cushions PwC India”. Letter dated 9 th March, 2012 was written to PwC, New Delhi, Chennai, Bangalore, PwC, Kolkata, LL, Kolkata. A letter was also written to RBI. The stand of the PwC firms, was that news item did not make any reference to their firms and no clarification was necessary. PwC, Kolkata submitted that it was member of PwC network of firms around the world (‘PwC Network’). To maintain the quality standards of all members, a grant of Rs.65 crores was given to them by the PricewaterhouseCoopers Services BV during the financial year ended 31st March, 2011 as an outright, non refundable grant. The same was included in the “Sundry Income” in their annual accounts. The stand of LL, Kolkata, was that it was a member of PwC Network of Firms around the world. It received grant of Rs.28.97 crores for maintaining quality standards from PwC Services BV during the financial year ended 31 st March, 2011 as an outright, non-refundable grant. The Disciplinary Directorate sent a reminder to the RBI and sent a letter to the Commissioner of Income Tax, Kolkata and Joint Secretary (Revenue), Ministry of Finance. The Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax, Kolkata stated that scrutiny proceedings on issue of transfer pricing were pending for the assessment year 2010-2011 and 2011-2012 in respect of PwCPL. With regard to the failure of PwC, Bangalore to discover the scandal of ‘Satyam’, it was stated that the US Regulators, i.e., Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and PCAOB had taken action but in India the proceedings were getting prolonged. As regards failure of LL to point out high level of NPAs of GTB, it was submitted that no formal complaint was filed against PwCPL. The same is not registered and the Institute could not take any action against them under the CA Act as amended in 2006 and 2007 Rules. Action was taken against the members of LL, Shri S.

Gopalakrishnan, Shri P. Rama Krishna and Shri Manish Agarwal.

Action was also taken against Shri Kersi H. Vachha and Shri Amal Ganguli. In 2002-2003 action was taken against Shri Partha Ghosh and Shri D.V.P. Rao of M/s. PwC. PwC Bangalore were the auditors of ‘Satyam’ for which action was taken against CA S.

Gopalakrishnan (For the period 1.4.2000 to 31.3.2007), CA S.

Talluri (For the period 1.4.2007 to 30.9.2008), CA Pulavarthi Siva Prasad (for the period 1.4.2001 to 31.3.2005), CA Chintapatla Ravindernath (for the period 1.4.2005 to 30.9.2008). Action was also taken against V. Srinivasu, the then CFO of the Satyam, V.S.

Prabhakara Gupta, the then head of Internal Audit Cell of Satyam.

The Joint Director, SFIO filed a complaint dated 3rd March, 2009 in respect of DSQ Softwares Limited against CA Naresh Kumar Tharad of M/s. N.K. Tharad & Co., Chartered Accountants, Kolkata. It was revealed that company had made preferential allotment of shares to various entities in a fraudulent manner.

Stand of the Respondent-Firms

29. In its written submissions, Respondent No.5 M/s. Deloitte Haskins & Sells submitted that there is no allegation against it in the SLP. All the partners of Respondent No.5 were Indians and the firm was also registered with the ICAI. An expert group was constituted by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs which gave its report dated January 31, 2017 to the effect that Big six firms (MAFs) were not operating directly. Their network partners were rendering audit services. Indian network firms pay global network charges to their parent organization towards sharing common global costs of human resources and other infrastructure, technology cost. This is a standard practice across jurisdictions. It does not make MAFs subject to the control by the global parent. MAFs cannot be considered as multinational entities as there is no foreign control through ownership or management. Network partners are run, controlled and managed by Indian nationals. It was submitted the writ petition was not maintainable.

30. Reference has also been made to letter dated 3 rd July, 2017 addressed to the Secretary, Ministry of Corporate Affairs from the PMO, with reference to the said expert group incorporating the conclusions of the expert group as follows:

“a) The accounting and auditing standards and practices followed in India should be aligned to international standards and practices with customization to the extent necessary.

b) The small size of majority of India audit firms being a constraint in facing global competition, consolidation through merger and networking of India audit firms should be encouraged through policy measures.

c) With audit becoming a multi disciplinary function, formation of multi disciplinary audit firms with participation by professionals from other relevant professions should be promoted.

d) It should be ensured that the recommendations of Quality Review Board conducting technical evaluations of India audit firms are implemented.

e) If and when audit and assurance are opened to global competition, the principle of reciprocity should be followed and the interests of India audit firms should be given due consideration.”

31. The stand of the PwC Network (Respondents 6 to 11) is that PwC or PW is the brand owned by PwCIL registered under the laws of England limited by guarantee. PwCIL acts as a coordinating company within the PwC network and does not provide any business or audit services. Respondent Nos.6 to 11 are member entities of the PwC Network which consists of companies and firms around the world all of which are separate legal entities. PwCIL allows desirous entities to become members of the PwC network if they follow global standards to provide quality services for clients in respect of audit/non audit services. Uniform and consistent delivery is important. PwC network is not a global partnership. The network activities are to develop and implement policies and initiatives for a common and coordinated approach to maintain quality and standards of service. PwC brand name is based on name licence agreement to exercise cooperation amongst member firms. All the members (in 177 countries) have to pay a licence fees. PwC Services BV (Services BV) is incorporated in Netherlands to operationalize global standards of services. Services BV coordinates efforts of various firms across the globe to develop superior global common standard. Services BV does not do any client related work but develop standards. It pools money by charging the network entities a percentage of their revenue which is used to meet the expenses to develop standards. Firm Service Agreements are signed by network entities. Services BV works on no profit no loss basis. Network charges are paid by all member entities including the Indian member entities. The network felt the need of enhancing the standards and capacity of Indian network entities for which non refundable grants were provided. The grants are not in the nature of investment. These are current account transactions and not capital account transactions. For FY 2009-10, the grants were taxed but network charges paid to Services BV were disallowed as deduction. For FY 2010-11 assessment order has been passed on 29th September, 2016 against which appeal was pending.

32. The Enforcement Directorate (ED) sought information in respect of funds received from outside India. In March and August, 2016, ED issued summons. In July, 2017, ED again issued summons under Section 37 of FEMA seeking details of inward/outward remittances. In August, 2017, the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) was issued summons by the ED to provide information about the remittances.

33. The Registrar of Companies issued notices to show cause why prosecution should not be launched against the Directors and Company Secretary of the PwCPL in January, 2013. Company Law Board allowed compounding of the offences on payment of composition amount of Rs.8,31,000/-.

34. Auditing services are being carried by firms belonging to PwC Group as follows :

i) Price Waterhouse [FRN-310002E] – 66 Indian Partners (Respondent No.7)

ii) Lovelock & Lewes [FRN-301056E] – 66 Indian Partners (Respondent No.8)

iii) Price Waterhouse & Co. [FRN-050032S] – 19 Indian Partners (Respondent No.9)

iv) Price Waterhouse, Bangalore [FRN-007568S] – 18 Indian Partners (Respondent No.10)

v) Dalal & Shah LLP [FRN-102021W/W100110] – 16 Indian Partners (Respondent NO.11)

35. There are other LLPs which are members of PwC Network in India. All the partners are Indian by nationality and registered with ICAI. Directors are not partners. Indian Chartered Accountant member firms of PwC Network operate as independent entities.

36. Guidelines of the ICAI dated 27th September, 2011 apply to a network if the network has common ownership, control or management, common quality control policies and procedures, common business strategy, use of a common brand name or a significant part of professional resources.

37. The Expert Group Report of the ICAI recommended the following:

“No person or entity and specially Chartered Accountants can hold out to public that they are operating in India as or on behalf or in their trade name and in any other manner so as to represent them being part of or authorized by MAFs to operate on their behalf in India or they are actually representing MAFs or they are MAFs office/representatives in India, except those registered with ICAI in terms of Clause (Hi) as a network, in accordance with network guidelines as notified by the ICAI from time to time.” [(Clause 7.12 (v) of the Report at pg.152 of SLP No.1808 of 2016].”

38. The guidelines allow registration of a network and the PwC firms have filed their declaration in accordance with the above guidelines and are registered in India as per Regulations of the ICAI.

Merely because the PwC audit firms are part of global PwC Network does not by itself violate any applicable law. As regards the grants received in Financial Years 2008-09, 2009-10 and 2010-11, amounting to Rs.142.9, tax has been paid as per assessment and proceedings are pending. The Network has furnished all the information to the ICAI.

39. Since all the partners are Indians and are registered with ICAI, they are personally accountable to the ICAI for any professional misconduct. Services BV does not have any stake in the partnership or profits of the firms. Thus, there is no violation of Section 25 of the CA Act.

Stand of Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)/ED

40. Stand taken by the CBDT is that on receipt of letter dated 1 st July, 2013 from the Advocate for the petitioner, investigation was conducted by the Director General of Income Tax (Investigation) (DGIT) with regard to the income tax implications. It was found that 11 entities belonging to the PwC Group are operating in India. Four entities have received grants of Rs.477.64 crores from PwC Services BV during the period 2009 to 2013. The grants are of two types – professional capacity building and business expansion. Rs.416.39 crores are offered for tax which were taxed for professional capacity building as “sundry income”. The balance was claimed as capital receipt for expansion of business. The Assessing Officer made assessment of tax and proceedings were pending. According to ED, investigation in the matter is pending, though number of witnesses have been examined.

Stand of the Registrar of Companies (ROC)

41. The stand of the ROC, Kolkata is that prosecution was initiated against the auditors of the Company, who compounded the offences. Certain proceedings are still pending against the auditors of the Company.

Stand of the RBI

42. The stand of the RBI is that it only issues circulars and frames Regulations under the FEMA but does not conduct any investigation for compliance thereof. Regulation 3 of the Foreign Exchange Management (Investment in Firm or Proprietary concern in India) Regulations, 2000 is that a person resident outside India cannot invest in a firm or proprietary concern without permission of the RBI.

As per para 3.3.2 of the FDI Policy, investment without prior approval of the RBI is not permitted.

The statutory provisions

43. Sections 2(2), 25 and 29 of the CA Act are reproduced below :

“2 (2) A member of the Institute shall be deemed “to be in practice”, when individually or in partnership with chartered accountants [in practice], he, in consideration of remuneration received or to be received— (i) engages himself in the practice of accountancy; or (ii) offers to perform or performs services involving the auditing or verification of financial transactions, books, accounts or records, or the preparation, verification or certification of financial accounting and related statements or holds himself out to the public as an accountant; or (iii) renders professional services or assistance in or about matters of principle or detail relating to accounting procedure or the recording, presentation or certification of financial facts or data; or] (iv) renders such other services as, in the opinion of the Council, are or may be rendered by a chartered accountant [in practice]; and the words “to be in practice” with their grammatical variations and cognate expressions shall be construed accordingly. 3 Explanation:— An associate or a fellow of the Institute who is a salaried employee of a chartered accountant [in practice] or [a firm, of such chartered accountants] shall, notwithstanding such employment, be deemed to be in practice for the limited purpose of the [training of articled [assistants]].

25. Companies not to engage in accountancy. (1) No company, whether incorporated in India or elsewhere, shall practise as chartered accountants. (2) If any company contravenes the provisions of sub-section (1), then, without prejudice to any other proceedings which may be taken against the company, every director, manager, secretary and any other officer thereof who is knowingly a party to such contravention shall be punishable with fine which may extend on first conviction to one thousand rupees, and on any subsequent conviction to five thousand rupees.

29. Reciprocity. (1) Where any country, specified by the Central Government in this behalf by notification in the official Gazette, prevents persons of Indian domicile from becoming members of any institution similar to the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or from practising the profession of accountancy or subjects them to unfair discrimination in that country, no subject of any such country shall be entitled to become a member of the Institute or practise the profession of accountancy in India. (2) Subject to the provisions of sub-section (1), the Council may prescribe the conditions, if any, subject to which foreign qualifications relating to accountancy shall be recognised for the purposes of entry in the Register. [29A. Power of Central Government to make rules. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, make rules to carry out the provisions of this Act. (2) In particular and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing powers, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:- (a) the manner of election and nomination in respect of members to the Council under sub-section (2) of section 9; (b) the terms and conditions of service of the Presiding Officer and Members of the tribunal, place of meetings and allowances to be paid to them under sub-section (3) of section 10B; (c) the procedure of investigation under sub-section (4) of section 21; (d) the procedure while considering the cases by the Disciplinary Committee under sub-section (2), and the fixation of allowances of the nominated members under sub-section (4) of section 21B; (e) the allowances and terms and conditions of service of the Chairperson and members of the Authority and the manner of meeting expenditure by the Council under section 22C; (f) the procedure to be followed by the Board in its meetings under section 28C; and (g) the terms and conditions of service of the Chairperson and members of the Board under sub-section (1) of section 28D.]” First and Second Schedule of the CA Act :

[THE FIRST SCHEDULE] [See Sections 21(3), 21A(3) and 22] PART I Professional misconduct in relation to chartered accountants in practice A chartered accountant in practice shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct, if he — (1) allows any person to practice in his name as a chartered accountant unless such person is also a chartered accountant in practice and is in partnership with or employed by him;

(2) pays or allows or agrees to pay or allow, directly or indirectly, any share, commission or brokerage in the fees or profits of his professional business, to any person other than a member of the Institute or a partner or a retired partner or the legal representative of a deceased partner, or a member of any other professional body or with such other persons having such qualifications as may be prescribed, for the purpose of rendering such professional services from time to time in or outside India.

Explanation. – In this item, “partner” includes a person residing outside India with whom a chartered accountant in practice has entered into partnership which is not in contravention of item (4) of this Part; (3) accepts or agrees to accept any part of the profits of the professional work of a person who is not a member of the Institute:

Provided that nothing herein contained shall be construed as prohibiting a member from entering into profit sharing or other similar arrangements, including receiving any share commission or brokerage in the fees, with a member of such professional body or other person having qualifications, as is referred to in item (2) of this Part;

(4) enters into partnership, in or outside India, with any person other than a chartered accountant in practice or such other person who is a member of any other professional body having such qualifications as may be prescribed, including a resident who but for his residence abroad would be entitled to be registered as a member under clause (v) of sub-section (1) of section 4 or whose qualifications are recognised by the Central Government or the Council for the purpose of permitting such partnerships;

(5) secures, either through the services of a person who is not an employee of such chartered accountant or who is not his partner or by means which are not open to a chartered accountant, any professional business:

Provided that nothing herein contained shall be construed as prohibiting any arrangement permitted in terms of items (2), (3) and (4) of this Part; (6) solicits clients or professional work either directly or indirectly by circular, advertisement, personal communication or interview or by any other means: Provided that nothing herein contained shall be construed as preventing or prohibiting –

(i) any chartered accountant from applying or requesting for or inviting or securing professional work from another chartered accountant in practice ; or

(ii) a member from responding to tenders or enquiries issued by various users of professional services or organisations from time to time and securing professional work as a consequence;

(7) advertises his professional attainments or services, or uses any designation or expressions other than chartered accountant on professional documents, visiting cards, letter heads or sign boards, unless it be a degree of a University established by law in India or recognised by the Central Government or a title indicating membership of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or of any other institution that has been recognised by the Central Government or may be recognised by the Council:

Provided that a member in practice may advertise through a write up setting out the services provided by him or his firm and particulars of his firm subject to such guidelines as may be issued by the Council; (8) accepts a position as auditor previously held by another chartered accountant or a certified auditor who has been issued certificate under the Restricted Certificate Rules, 1932 without first communicating with him in writing;

(9) accepts an appointment as auditor of a company without first ascertaining from it whether the requirements of section 225 of the Companies Act, 1956 9 1 of 1956] in respect of such appointment have been duly complied with;

(10) charges or offers to charge, accepts or offers to accept in respect of any professional employment, fees which are based on a percentage of profits or which are contingent upon the findings, or results of such employment, except as permitted under any regulation made under this Act;

(11) engages in any business or occupation other than the profession of chartered accountant unless permitted by the Council so to engage:

Provided that nothing contained herein shall disentitle a chartered accountant from being a director of a company (not being a managing director or a whole time director) unless he or any of his partners is interested in such company as an auditor; (12) allows a person not being a member of the Institute in practice, or a member not being his partner to sign on his behalf or on behalf of his firm, any balance-sheet, profit and loss account, report or financial statements.

PART II Professional misconduct in relation to members of the Institute in service A member of the Institute (other than a member in practice) shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct, if he being an employee of any company, firm or person – (1) pays or allows or agrees to pay directly or indirectly to any person any share in the emoluments of the employment undertaken by him;

(2) accepts or agrees to accept any part of fees, profits or gains from a lawyer, a chartered accountant or broker engaged by such company, firm or person or agent or customer of such company, firm or person by way of commission or gratification.

PART III Professional misconduct in relation to members of the Institute generally A member of the Institute, whether in practice or not, shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct, if he – (1) not being a fellow of the Institute, acts as a fellow of the Institute;

(2) does not supply the information called for, or does not comply with the requirements asked for, by the Institute, Council or any of its Committees, Director (Discipline), Board of Discipline, Disciplinary Committee, Quality Review Board or the Appellate Authority;

(3) while inviting professional work from another chartered accountant or while responding to tenders or enquiries or while advertising through a write up, or anything as provided for in items (6) and (7) of Part I of this Schedule, gives information knowing it to be false.

PART IV Other misconduct in relation to members of the Institute generally A member of the Institute, whether in practice or not, shall be deemed to be guilty of other misconduct, if he — (1) is held guilty by any civil or criminal court for an offence which is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months;

(2) in the opinion of the Council, brings disrepute to the profession or the Institute as a result of his action whether or not related to his professional work.] THE SECOND SCHEDULE [See sections 21(3), 21B(3) and 22 ] PART I Professional misconduct in relation to chartered accountants in practice A chartered accountant in practice shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct, if he – (1) discloses information acquired in the course of his professional engagement to any person other than his client so engaging him, without the consent of his client or otherwise than as required by any law for the time being in force;

(2) certifies or submits in his name, or in the name of his firm, a report of an examination of financial statements unless the examination of such statements and the related records has been made by him or by a partner or an employee in his firm or by another chartered accountant in practice;

(3) permits his name or the name of his firm to be used in connection with an estimate of earnings contingent upon future transactions in a manner which may lead to the belief that he vouches for the accuracy of the forecast;

(4) expresses his opinion on financial statements of any business or enterprise in which he, his firm, or a partner in his firm has a substantial interest; (5) fails to disclose a material fact known to him which is not disclosed in a financial statement, but disclosure of which is necessary in making such financial statement where he is concerned with that financial statement in a professional capacity;

(6) fails to report a material misstatement known to him to appear in a financial statement with which he is concerned in a professional capacity;

(7) does not exercise due diligence, or is grossly negligent in the conduct of his professional duties; (8) fails to obtain sufficient information which is necessary for expression of an opinion or its exceptions are sufficiently material to negate the expression of an opinion;

(9) fails to invite attention to any material departure from the generally accepted procedure of audit applicable to the circumstances;

(10) fails to keep moneys of his client other than fees or remuneration or money meant to be expended in a separate banking account or to use such moneys for purposes for which they are intended within a reasonable time.

PART II Professional misconduct in relation to members of the Institute generally A member of the Institute, whether in practice or not, shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct, if he— (1) contravenes any of the provisions of this Act or the regulations made thereunder or any guidelines issued by the Council;

(2) being an employee of any company, firm or person, discloses confidential information acquired in the course of his employment except as and when required by any law for the time being in force or except as permitted by the employer;

(3) includes in any information, statement, return or form to be submitted to the Institute, Council or any of its Committees, Director (Discipline), Board of Discipline, Disciplinary Committee, Quality Review Board or the Appellate Authority any particulars knowing them to be false;

(4) defalcates or embezzles moneys received in his professional capacity.

PART III Other misconduct in relation to members of the Institute generally A member of the Institute, whether in practice or not, shall be deemed to be guilty of other misconduct, if he is held guilty by any civil or criminal court for an offence which is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding six months.

Regulation 3 of the Foreign Exchange Management (Investment in Firm or Proprietory concern in India) Regulations, 2000 “3. Restrictions on investment in a firm or a proprietary concern in India by a person resident outside India Save as otherwise provided in the Act or rules or regulations made or directions or orders issued thereunder, no person resident outside India shall make any investment by way of contribution to the capital of a firm or a proprietary concern or any association of persons in india;

Provided that the Reserve Bank may, on an application made to it, permit a person resident outside India subject to such terms and conditions as may be considered necessary to make an investment by way of contribution to the capital of a firm or a proprietary concern or any association of persons in India.” Clause 3.3.2 (III) of the Circular 2 of 2010 of the Consolidated FDI (CFDI) Policy :

“3.3.2 FDI in Partnership Firm / Proprietary Concern:

(iii)Investment by non-residents other than NRIs/PIO: A person resident outside India other than NRIs/PIO may make an application and seek prior approval of Reserve Bank for making investment by way of contribution to the capital of a firm or a proprietorship concern or any association of persons in India. The application will be decided in consultation with the Government of India. “ Consideration of the Issue

44. The above resume of facts and pleadings shows the following:

i) There is a bar under CA Act to practice as CAs for a company which includes a limited liability common partnership which has company as its partners.

ii) Code of Conduct for the CAs prohibits fee sharing, advertisements but the MAFs by using international brands and mixing other services with the services to be provided as part of practice of chartered accountancy violate the said Code of Conduct for which there is no regulatory regime as the MAFs do not register themselves with ICAI. Indian firms using similar brand names are registered with the ICAI but the real entities being MAFs, ICAI is unable to take requisite action for violation of Code of Ethics by the MAFs. Thus, revisit of existing legal framework may become necessary so as to have an oversight mechanism to regulate MAFs on the touchstone of Code of Ethics.

iii) Need for amendment of law to separate regulatory regime for auditing services on the pattern of Sarbanse Oxley Act enacted in US making a foreign public accounting firm preparing audit reports to be accountable to the Public Company Accounting. Similar oversight body may need to be considered in India.

iv) Section 29 of the CA Act provides that if a specified country, prohibits persons of Indian domicile from becoming members of any institution similar to ICAI or practicing the profession of accountancy or subjects them to unfair discrimination in that country, no subject of any such country shall be entitled to become a member of the Institute or practice the profession of accountancy in India.

v) FDI Policy and the RBI Guidelines framed under the FEMA prohibit the investment by a person outside India to make investment by way of contribution to the capital of a firm or a proprietary concern without permission of the RBI

vi) PwC Services BV Netherlands has made investments in Indian firms. According to the petitioners, the investment is also intended to acquire an audit firm through a circuitous route of giving interest free loans and further investments are in the form of grants for enhancement of skills. Profit sharing is in the form of licence fees/network charges. According to the network, the partners are all Indian partners and use of common brand name is only for uniform standard and giving of grants is for maintaining the said standard. There was no investment by an entity outside India. Nor it amounts to profit sharing by the Indian accountancy firms with an entity outside India.

45. It is an undisputed fact that there are remittances from outside India. The same could be termed as investment even though the remittances are claimed to be interest free loans to partners. The amount could also be for taking over an Indian chartered accountancy firm. Relationship of partnership firms, though having Indian partners, operating under a common brand name from same infrastructure, with foreign entity is not ruled out. It is not possible to rule out violation of FDI policies, FEMA Regulations and the CA Act. Thus, appropriate action may have to be taken in pending proceedings or initiated at appropriate forum.

46. The investigation so far carried out cannot be held to be complete in all respects. The investigation by income tax authorities is only for assessment of income tax. Action by the ROC also does not cover the issue raised herein. The investigation by the ED is said to be still pending, though several persons are said to have been examined and documents collected, which are under scrutiny. The said investigation relates to FEMA violations. The ICAI has initiated action with regard to foreign remittances and is said to have written a letter dated 19 th March, 2012 to the RBI to enquire whether investigation was conducted by the RBI. However, according to ICAI, its investigation can only be in respect of members, registered with it, for the misconduct conducted by them.

The ICAI does not claim to have conducted complete investigation for want of complete information into the issue whether the chartered accountancy firms by receiving remittances from outside India or remitting licence fee/network charges outside India have allowed participation of a company or a foreign entity in the accountancy business in violation of Section 25 of the CA Act and whether use of common brand name by the network firms is in violation of reciprocity stipulated under Section 29 of the CA Act.

The ICAI should have taken the matter to logical end, by drawing adverse inference, if information was withheld by the concerned groups.

47. No doubt, the report of the committee of experts of ICAI dated 29th July, 2011 does not specifically name the MAFs involved, groups A,B,C,D are mentioned. The ICAI ought to constitute an expert panel to update its enquiry. Being an expert body, it should examine the matter further to uphold the law and give a report to concerned authorities for appropriate action. Though the Committee analysed available facts and found that MAFs were involved in violating ethics and law, it took hyper technical view that non availability of complete information and the groups as such were not amenable to its disciplinary jurisdiction in absence of registration. A premier professionals body cannot limit its oversight functions on technicalities and is expected to play proactive role for upholding ethics and values of the profession by going into all connected and incidental issues.

48. Thus, a case is made out for examination not only by ED and further examination by the ICAI but also by the Central Government having regard to the issues of violation of RBI/FDI policies and the CA Act by secret arrangements.

49. It can hardly be disputed that profession of auditing is of great importance for the economy. Financial statements audited by qualified auditors are acted upon and failures of the auditors have resulted into scandals in the past. The auditing profession requires proper oversight. Such oversight mechanism needs to be revisited from time to time. It has been pointed out that post Enron Anderson Scandal, in the year 2000, Sarbanse Oxley Act was enacted in U.S.

requiring corporate leaders to personally certify the accuracy of their company’s financials. The Act also lays down rules for functioning of audit companies with a view to prevent the corporate analysts from benefitting at the cost of public interest. The audit companies were also prohibited from providing non audit services to companies whose audits were conducted by such auditors. Needless to say that absence of adequate oversight mechanism has the potential of infringing public interest and rule of law which are part of fundamental rights under Articles 14 and 21. It appears necessary to realise that auditing business is required to be separated from the consultancy business to ensure independence of auditors. The accounting firms could not be left to self regulate themselves.

50. While we appreciate that it is for the policy makers to take a call on the issue of extent to which globalization could be allowed in a particular field and conditions subject to which the same can be allowed. Safeguards in the society and economy of the country in the process are of paramount importance. This Court may not involve itself with the policy making but the policy framework can certainly be looked at to find out whether safeguards for enforcement of fundamental rights have been duly maintained. In the present context, having regard to the statutory framework under the CA Act, current FDI Policy and the RBI Circulars, it may prima facie appear that there is violation of statutory provisions and policy framework effective enforcement of which has to be ensured.

Statutory regulatory provisions intended to advance the object of law have to be enforced meaningfully. No vested interest can flout the same by manifesting compliance only in form. Compliance has to be in substance. The law enforcing agencies are expected to see the real situation. As found by the Expert Committee in its report, there is a compliance by MAFs only in form and not in substance, by having got registered partnership firms with the Indian partners, the real beneficiaries of transacting the business of chartered accountancy remain the companies of the foreign entities. The partnership firms are merely a face to defy the law. The principle of lifting the corporate veil has to apply when the law is sought to be circumvented. In expanding horizons of modern jurisprudence, it is certainly permissible. Its frontiers are unlimited. The horizon of the doctrine is expanding. While the company is a separate entity, the Court has come to recognize several exceptions to this rule. One exception is where corporate personality is used as a cloak for fraud or improper conduct or for violation of law. Protection of public interest being of paramount importance, if the corporate personality is to be used to evade obligations imposed by law, the real state of affairs needs to be seen 1. The same principle applies while overseeing the compliance of applicable ethics of not permitting profit sharing or complying with the ceiling limit for the business 1 State of Rajasthan vs. Gotan Lime Stone Khanji Udyog Pvt. Ltd. (2016) 4 SCC 469, paras 24 to 28; State of Karnataka vs. Selvi J. Jayalalitha (2017) 6 SCC 263, paras 205 to 211 which is violated by using the technique of sub contracts for outsourcing. If the premises are same, phone number/fax number is same, brand name is same, the controlling entity is same, human resources are same, it will be difficult to expect that there is full compliance on mere separate registration of a firm. The prohibition under Section 25 of the CA Act can be held to be defeated. It is perhaps for this reason that the network firms avoided giving the information sought by the Committee. The issue of separate oversight body for auditing work and updating existing legal framework appear to be necessary.

51. The other aspect is of investment in CA firms, in violation of prohibition of FDI policy, by using a circuitous route of interest free loans to partners. The fact that the income tax authorities have taken the grants received as revenue receipts and taxed the same as such is not conclusive to hold that the receipt is not an investment which is impermissible. If investment is not permitted, the policy of law cannot be defeated by terming such investment as grant for quality control specially when the grant has been used to acquire a chartered accountancy firm.

52. Absence of revisiting and restructuring oversight mechanism as discussed above may have adverse effect on the existing chartered accountancy profession as a whole on the one hand and unchecked auditing bodies can adversely affect the economy of the country on the other. Moreover, companies doing chartered accountancy business will not have personal or individual accountability which is required. Persons who are the face may be insignificant and real owners or beneficiary of prohibited activity may go scot free. As already noted, the Reports of the Study Group and Expert Group show that enforcement mechanism is not adequate and effective. This aspect needs to be looked into by experts in the Government. It may consider whether on the pattern of the Sarbanse Oxley Act corporate leaders be required to personally certify the accuracy of the financial statements. Further, how to prevent corporate analysts from benefitting from the conflict of interests, how to check audit companies from providing non audit services and how to lay down protocol for auditors. It has also been brought to our notice that another law in US ‘Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, 2010’ to ensure more transparency and accountability of financial institutions to decrease the risk of investing needs consideration. It sets up an oversight body called the Financial Stability Oversight Council (FSOC).

53. Accordingly, we issue the following directions:

(i) The Union of India may constitute a three member Committee of experts to look into the question whether and to what extent the statutory framework to enforce the letter and spirit of Sections 25 and 29 of the CA Act and the statutory Code of Conduct for the CAs requires revisit so as to appropriately discipline and regulate MAFs. The Committee may also consider the need for an appropriate legislation on the pattern of Sarbanes Oxley Act, 2002 and Dodd Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, 2010 in US or any other appropriate mechanism for oversight of profession of the auditors. Question whether on account of conflict of interest of auditors with consultants, the auditors’ profession may need an exclusive oversight body may be examined. The Committee may examine the Study Group and the Expert Group Reports referred to above, apart from any other material. It may also consider steps for effective enforcement of the provisions of the FDI policy and the FEMA Regulations referred to above.

It may identify the remedial measures which may then be considered by appropriate authorities. The Committee may call for suggestions from all concerned. Such Committee may be constituted within two months. Report of the Committee may be submitted within three months thereafter. The UOI may take further action after due consideration of such report.

(ii) The ED may complete the pending investigation within three months;

(iiI) ICAI may further examine all the related issues at appropriate level as far as possible within three months and take such further steps as may be considered necessary.

The matters stand disposed of accordingly.

…………………………….J.

[ADARSH KUMAR GOEL] …………………………..J.

[UDAY UMESH LALIT] NEW DELHI;

23rd FEBRUARY, 2018.

Grant of bail is the rule and refusal is the exception: Supreme Court Judgement

MASTI

The Supreme Court has held in the latest judgement that the historical background of the provision for bail has been elaborately and lucidly explained in a recent decision delivered in Nikesh Tarachand Shah v. Union of India, 2017 (13) SCALE 609 going back to the days of the Magna Carta.

In that decision, reference was made to Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia v. State of Punjab, (1980) 2 SCC 565 in which it is observed that it was held way back in Nagendra v. King-Emperor, AIR 1924 Cal 476 that bail is not to be withheld as a punishment.

Reference was also made to Emperor v. Hutchinson, AIR 1931 All 356 wherein it was observed that grant of bail is the rule and refusal is the exception.

The provision for bail is therefore age-old and the liberal interpretation to the provision for bail is almost a century old, going back to colonial days.

The Supreme Court clarified in the judgement that it does not mean that bail should be granted in every case. The grant or refusal of bail is entirely within the discretion of the judge hearing the matter and though that discretion is unfettered, it must be exercised judiciously and in a humane manner and compassionately. Also, conditions for the grant of bail ought not to be so strict as to be incapable of compliance, thereby making the grant of bail illusory.

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

CRIMINAL APPEAL NO. 321 OF 2018
(Arising Out of SLP (Crl.) Diary No. 1445 of 2018)

PANKAJ JAIN … APPELLANT

VERSUS

UNION OF INDIA & ANR. … RESPONDENTS

J U D G M E N T

ASHOK BHUSHAN, J.

Leave granted.

2. This appeal has been filed against the judgment and order of Allahabad High Court dated 21.12.2017 dismissing the Writ Petition No. 62167 of 2017 filed by the appellant. The principal issue, which has arisen for interpretation of this Court, is the content and meaning of Section 88 of the Code of Criminal Signature Procedure, 1973 (hereinafter referred to as Reason:

“Cr.P.C.”). Before we come to the impugned judgment of the High Court, it is necessary to note a series of litigations initiated at the instance of the appellant in different courts, arising out of criminal proceeding lodged against him.

3. A First Information Report under Sections 120-B, 409, 420, 466, 467, 469 and 471 of Indian Penal Code and under Sections 13(2) and 13(1)(d) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 was lodged against one Yadav Singh, the then Chief Engineer of Noida, Greater Noida and the Yamuna Expressway Authorities and a charge sheet dated 15.03.2016 being Charge Sheet No.02/2016 was submitted in the Court of Special Judge, C.B.I. against several accused including Yadav Singh and the appellant Pankaj Jain. The trial court took cognizance by order dated 29.03.2016 summoning accused for 29.04.2016 for appearance. The appellant filed an application under Section 482 Cr.P.C. in the Allahabad High Court being Application No. 31090 of 2016, praying for quashing the entire criminal proceeding of Special Case No. 10 of 2016 as well as summoning order dated 29.03.2016. The application was finally disposed off by the High Court vide order dated 17.10.2016 with a direction that if the applicant appears and surrenders before the Court below within two weeks and applies for bail, then his bail application shall be considered and decided. The appellant filed an Special Leave Petition (Crl.) No. 10191/2016 against the judgment of the High Court dated 17.10.2016, which was dismissed by this Court as withdrawn on 16.01.2017 with liberty to apply for regular bail.

4. A supplementary charge sheet was filed on 31.05.2017, on the basis of which a Cognizance Order dated 07.06.2017 was passed by the Special Judge, C.B.I. taking cognizance against the appellant and other accused under Sections 120B, 420, 468, 471 of I.P.C. and Sections 13(2) and 13(1)(d) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. Again an application under Section 482 Cr.P.C. being Application No. 18849 of 2017 was filed by the appellant in the High Court praying for quashing the criminal proceeding in pursuance of supplementary charge sheet dated 31.05.2017. The High Court vide its order dated 06.07.2017 disposed of the application under Section 482 Cr.P.c. directing that if the applicant appears and surrenders before the Special Judge, C.B.I. within two weeks and applies for bail, it is expected that the same will be disposed of expeditiously in accordance with law. It was further directed in the meantime for a period of two weeks, effect of non-bailable warrant shall be kept in abeyance. The appellant aggrieved by the order of the High Court dated 06.07.2017 again filed an Special Leave Petition (Criminal) No. 7749 of 2017, which was disposed of by this Court on 24.11.2017 granting further two weeks’ time to the petitioner(appellant) to apply for regular bail before the Special Judge, C.B.I. with a direction to the trial court to consider the said application for bail forthwith.

5. On 27.11.2017, the case was taken up by the Special Judge, C.B.I. The Court noticed that appellant and one other accused was not present. The Court ordered for issuing non-bailable warrants and process of Sections 82 and 83 of Cr.P.C. against the appellant. On the same day, noticing the order passed by this Court on 24.11.2017 in S.L.P. (Criminal) No. 7749 of 2017, the learned Special Judge stayed the orders against the appellant for a period of two weeks’ as per order of this Court. The appellant further filed Writ Petition (Criminal) No. 199 of 2017 in this Court under Article 32 of the Constitution of India contending that the petitioner (appellant), who was not arrested during investigation by the C.B.I., has to simply surrender and give a bond under Section 88 of the Code of Criminal Procedure. A direction to that effect was sought for by this Court. This Court disposed of the writ petition vide its order dated 06.12.2017 noticing the earlier order of this Court dated 24.11.2017 with the following order:-

“In view of our aforesaid orders dated 24.11.2017, we are of the opinion that the petitioner should, in the first instance, appear before the trial Court, which is the course of action already charted out. It would be open to the petitioner to move an application under Section 88 Cr.P.C. or a bail application, as may be advised. It will also be open to the petitioner to rely upon the judgments in support of his contention as noted above. It is for the trial Court to go through the matter and take a view thereupon. Insofar as this Court is concerned, no opinion on merits is expressed.

Mr. Mukul Rohatgi, learned senior counsel, submits that the petitioner, who is present in the Court today, shall surrender and appear before the trial Court tomorrow, 07.12.2017. This statement of the learned senior counsel is noted.

The writ petition stands disposed of in the aforesaid terms.”

6. After order of this Court dated 06.12.2017, the appellant appeared before Court of Special Judge, C.B.I. and submitted an application dated 07.12.2017. In the application, following prayer has been made:-

“a) That this Hon’ble Court may be pleased to forthwith take up and dispose this application made by the Applicant Pankaj Jain, who is voluntarily present before this Hon’ble Court, pursuant to the liberty granted by the Hon’ble Supreme Court vide Order dated 6.12.2017 passed in the Writ Petition (Crl.) No. 199 of 2017 read with Order dated 24.11.2017 passed in the SLP (Crl.) No. 7749 of 2017, and to permit him to furnish such bond, as may deemed fit, as per Section 88 of the Cr.P.C. in RC No. RC/DST/2015/A/0004/CBI/STF/DLI dated 30.07.2015/Case No. 10A/2016 and 3/2017 without sending him to any prison;

b) Any such other or further order as this Hon’ble Court may deem fit to grant in the facts and circumstances of the case and in the interest of justice.”

7. The above application dated 07.12.2017 was rejected by the Special Judge, C.B.I. The Special Judge, C.B.I. observed that the word ‘may’ used in Section 88 signifies that Section 88 is not mandatory and it is a matter of judicial discretion. The Special Judge after noticing the allegations of the appellant rejected the application No. 14B of 2017. Aggrieved against the judgment dated 07.12.2017, another application No. 101B of 2017 was filed by the appellant, which was also rejected. The applicant filed a S.L.P. (Crl.) No. 9764 of 2017, which was disposed of vide its order dated 15.12.2017 observing that since the impugned order is passed by the Special Judge, CBI, it would be appropriate for the petitioner to challenge that order by approaching the High Court. Subsequent to the order dated 15.12.2017, the petitioner-appellant filed a Writ Petition No. 62167 of 2017, where the Petitioner-appellant also sought to challenge the vires of Section 88 as well as writ for Certiorari quashing the order dated 07.12.2017 of trial court. In the Writ Petition, following prayers have been made:-

(a) Issue an appropriate writ, order or direction, declaring in the above context, the use of word ‘may’ in Section 88 of Cr.P.C. as unconstitutional, manifestly arbitrary, unreasonable and ultra vires of the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India or in the alternative to read it down by expounding, deliberating and delineating its scope in the context, to save Section 88 from unconstitutionally on the vice of Article 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India.

(b) Issue a writ of certiorari or any other appropriate writ, order or direction, setting aside the impugned Order/s dated 07.12.2017 passed by the Trial Court i.e. Special Judge for Anti-Corruption CBI cases at Ghaziabad, with consequential relief of setting the petitioner at liberty by permitting him to furnish his Bonds under Section 88 of Cr.P.C. to the satisfaction of the said Trial Court in RC No. RC/DST/2015/A/0004/CBI/STF/DLI dated 30.07.2015.

(c) Any further Order as may be in the interest of justice may also be passed by this Hon’ble Court.”

8. The writ petition has been dismissed by Division Bench of the High Court vide its judgment and order dated 21.12.2017, against which judgment this appeal has been filed.

9. We have heard Shri Mukul Rohtagi, learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant and Shri Maninder Singh, Additional Solicitor General of India for the respondent.

10. Shri Mukul Rohtagi, learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant submits that appellant having not been arrested during investigation when he appeared before the Special Judge, C.B.I., it was obligatory on the part of the Court to have accepted the bail bond under Section 88 of the Cr.P.C. and released the appellant forthwith. It is submitted that the Court of Special Judge committed error in rejecting the application under Section 88. It is further submitted that bail application was not filed by the appellant since all those, who appeared before the Court were taken into custody and their bail applications were rejected. Learned senior counsel submits that although Section 88 uses the word ‘may’ but the word ‘may’ has to be read as shall causing an obligation on the Court to release on bond, those, who appeared on their own volition in the Court. He further submits that the High Court committed error in observing that petitioner has concealed material facts from this Court when he had filed S.L.P. (Criminal) No. 7749 of 2017. It is submitted that all facts were mentioned in S.L.P. (Criminal) No. 7749 of 2017 and observation of the High Court that any fact was concealed is incorrect.

11. Shri Maninder Singh, learned Additional Solicitor General of India for the respondent refuting the submission of the appellant contended that Section 88 Cr.P.C. has been rightly interpreted by the High Court. It is submitted that against the appellant not only summons but non-bailable warrant and proceedings under Sections 82 and 83 Cr.P.C. were also initiated by the Special Judge. Hence, he was not entitled for indulgence of being released on submission of bond under Section 88 Cr.P.C. He further submits that the Court has discretionary power under Section 88 to release a person on accepting bond, which cannot be claimed as a matter of right by the accused, who has already been summoned and against whom non-bailable warrant has been issued. It is further submitted that although the petitioner-appellant has filed various applications under Section 482 Cr.P.C. as well as Special Leave Petitions before this Court, but has so far not filed any bail application before the Special Judge, C.B.I. He submits that although liberty was taken by the appellant from this Court on 16.01.2017 when SLP (Crl.) No. 10190 of 2017 was dismissed as well as on 24.11.2017 when SLP (Crl.) No. 7749 of 2017 was disposed off to apply for regular bail before the Court but inspite of taking such liberty, no application for bail was filed by the appellant.

12. We have considered the submissions of the learned senior counsel for the parties and perused the records.

13. The main issue which needs to be answered in the present appeal is as to whether it was obligatory for the Court to release the appellant by accepting the bond under Section 88 Cr.P.C. on the ground that he was not arrested during investigation or the Court has rightly exercised its jurisdiction under Section 88 in rejecting the application filed by the appellant praying for release by accepting the bond under Section 88 Cr.P.C.

14. Section 88 Cr.P.C. is a provision which is contained in Chapter VI “Processes to Compel Appearance” of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. Chapter VI is divided in four Sections – A.-Summons; B.-Warrant of arrest; C.- Proclamation and Attachment and D.-Other rules regarding processes. Section 88 provides as follows:-

88. Power to take bond for appearance.

-When any person for whose appearance or arrest the officer presiding in any Court is empowered to issue a summons or warrant, is present in such Court, such officer may require such person to execute a bond, with or without sureties, for his appearance in such Court, or any other Court to which the case may be transferred for trial.

15. We need to first consider as to what was the import of the words ‘may’ used in Section

88.

16. Justice G.P. Singh in “Principles of Statutory Interpretation”, 14th Edition, while considering the enabling words ‘may’ explained the following principles of interpretation:-

“(K) Enabling words, e.g., ‘may’, ‘it shall be lawful’, ‘shall have power’. Power Coupled with duty Ordinarily, the words ‘May’ and ‘It shall be lawful’ are not words of compulsion. They are enabling words and they only confer capacity, power or authority and imply discretion. “They are both used in a statute to indicate that something may be done which prior to it could not be done”. The use of words ‘Shall have power’ also connotes the same idea.”

17. Although, ordinary use of word ‘may’ imply discretion but when the word ‘may’ is coupled with duty on an authority or Court, it has been given meaning of shall that is an obligation on an authority or Court. Whether use of the word ‘may’ is coupled with duty is a question, which needs to be answered from the statutory scheme of a particular statute. The Principles of Interpretation have been laid down by Lord Cairns in Julius Vs. Lord Bishop of Oxford, (1874-80) All ER Rep. 43 where Lord Cairns enunciated Principles of Statutory Interpretation in the following words:-

“There may be something in the nature of the thing empowered to be done, something in the object for which it is to be done, something in the conditions under which it is to be done, something in the title of the person or persons for whose benefit the power is to be exercised, which may couple the power with a duty and make it the duty of the person in whom the power is reposed to exercise the power when called upon to do so.

Where a power is deposited with a public officer for the purpose of being used for the benefit of persons specifically pointed out with regard to whom a definition is supplied by the Legislature of the conditions upon which they are entitled to call for its exercise, that power ought to be exercised and the Court will require it to be exercised.

The enabling words are construed as compulsory whenever the object of the power is to effectuate a legal right”

18. Learned senior counsel for the appellant has referred to judgments of this Court in the case of State of Uttar Pradesh Vs. Jogendra Singh, AIR 1963 SC 1618 and Ramji Missar & Anr. Vs. State of Bihar, AIR 1963 SC 1088. In State of Uttar Pradesh Vs. Jogendra Singh (supra), this Court had occasion to consider the use of word ‘may’ in Rule 4(2) of the Uttar Pradesh Disciplinary Proceedings (Administrative Tribunal) Rules, 1947. In the above regard, in Paragraph 8 following has been stated:-

“8. Rule 4(2) deals with the class of gazetted government servants and gives them the right to make a request to the Governor that their cases should be referred to the Tribunal in respect of matters specified in clauses (a) to

(d) of sub-rule (1). The question for our decision is whether like the word “may” in Rule 4(1) which confers the discretion on the Governor, the word “may” in sub-rule (2) confers the dis- cretion on him, or does the word “may” in sub-rule (2) really mean “shall” or “must”? There is no doubt that the word “may” generally does not mean “must” or “shall”. But it is well set- tled that the word “may” is capable of meaning “must” or “shall” in the light of the context. It is also clear that where a discretion is conferred upon a public authority coupled with an obli- gation, the word “may” which denotes discretion should be construed to mean a command. Sometimes, the legislature uses the word “may” out of deference to the high status of the authority on whom the power and the obligation are intended to be conferred and imposed. In the present case, it is the context which is decisive. The whole purpose of Rule 4(2) would be frustrated if the word “may” in the said rule re-

ceives the same construction as in sub-rule (1). It is because in regard to gazetted government servants the discretion had already been given to the Governor to refer their cases to the Tribunal that the rule making au- thority wanted to make a special pro- vision in respect of them as distin- guished from other government servants falling under Rule 4(1) and Rule 4(2) has been prescribed, otherwise Rule 4(2) would be wholly redundant. In other words, the plain and unambiguous object of enacting Rule 4(2) is to provide an option to the gazetted gov- ernment servants to request the Gover- nor that their cases should be tried by a tribunal and not otherwise. The rule-making authority presumably thought that having regard to the sta- tus of the gazetted government ser- vants, it would be legitimate to give such an option to them. Therefore, we feel no difficulty in accepting the view taken by the High Court that Rule 4(2) imposes an obligation on the Gov- ernor to grant a request made by the gazetted government servant that his case should be referred to the Tri- bunal under the Rules. Such a request was admittedly made by the respondent and has not been granted. Therefore, we are satisfied that the High Court was right in quashing the proceedings proposed to be taken by the appellant against the respondent otherwise than by referring his case to the Tribunal under the Rules.”

19. This Court held that use of the word ‘may’ in Rule 4(2) confers an obligation and gaven the right to the government servants to make a request to the Governor. Thus, in the above case, the word ‘may’ was coupled with duty, which was held to be obligatory.

20. In Ramji Missar & Anr. Vs. State of Bihar (supra), this Court again considered Sections 11(1) and 6(2) of Probation of Offenders Act, 1958. In Para 16, this Court laid down following:-

“16. Though the word “may” might con- note merely an enabling or premissive power in the sense of the usual phrase “it shall be lawful”, it is also capa- ble of being construed as referring to a compellable duty, particularly when it refers to a power conferred on a court or other judicial authority. As observed in Maxwell on Statutes: “Statutes which authorise persons to do acts for the benefit of oth- ers, or, as it is sometimes said, for the public good or the advance- ment of justice, have often given rise to controversy when conferring the authority in terms simply en- abling and not mandatory. In enact- ing that they ‘may’, or shall, if they think fit,’ or, ‘shall have power,’ or that ‘it shall be law-

ful’ for them to do such acts, a statute appears to use the language of mere permission, but it has been so often decided as to have become an axiom that in such cases such expressions may have — to say the least — a compulsory force.”……………………

21. This Court noticed that in the 1958 Act, certain tests as a guidance have been laid down for exercise of discretion by the Court. The Court rejected the submission that there is unfettered discretion in the Appellate Court in exercising power under Section 11. The above case was also a case where discretion given to the Court to be exercised under certain guidelines and tests, which was a case of discretion coupled with duty.

22. This Court in the case of State of Kerala & Ors. Vs. Kandath Distilleries, (2013) 6 SCC 573 came to consider the use of expression ‘may’ in Kerala Abkari Act, 1902. The Court held that the expression conferred discretionary power on the Commissioner and power is not coupled with duty. Following observation has been made in paragraph 29:-

“29.Section 14 uses the
expression “Commissioner may”,
“with the approval of the

Government” so also Rule 4 uses the expressions “Commissioner may”, “if he is satisfied” after making such enquiries as he may consider necessary “licence may be issued”. All those expressions used in Section 14 and Rule 4 confer discretionary powers on the Commissioner as well as the State Government, not a discretionary power coupled with duty….”

23. Section 88 of the Cr.P.C. does not confer any right on any person, who is present in a Court. Discretionary power given to the Court is for the purpose and object of ensuring appearance of such person in that Court or to any other Court into which the case may be transferred for trial. Discretion given under Section 88 to the Court does not confer any right on a person, who is present in the Court rather it is the power given to the Court to facilitate his appearance, which clearly indicates that use of word ‘may’ is discretionary and it is for the Court to exercise its discretion when situation so demands. It is further relevant to note that the word used in Section 88 “any person” has to be given wide meaning, which may include persons, who are not even accused in a case and appeared as witnesses.

24. Learned counsel for the appellant has referred to two judgments of Delhi High Court, namely, Court on Its own Motion Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation, 109 (2003) Delhi Law Times 494. In the above case, certain general directions were issued by the Court in context of Section 173 and 170 of Cr.P.C. The said case was not a case where issue which has fallen in the present case pertaining to Section 88 Cr.P.C. was involved. The subsequent judgment of Delhi High Court in Sanjay Chaturvedi Vs. State, 132 (2006) Delhi Law Times 692 was also a case where earlier judgment of Delhi High Court in Court on Its own Motion Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation (supra) was followed. The said case also does not in any manner adopted the interpretation of Section 88 as contended by the appellant.

25. Another judgment of Delhi High Court in Bail Application No. 508 of 2011 Sanjay Chandra Vs. C.B.I. decided on 23.05.2011 supports the submission raised by learned Additional Solicitor General that power under Section 88 Cr.P.C., the word ‘may’ used in Section 88 Cr.P.C. is not mandatory and is a matter of judicial discretion. Paras 20, 21 and 22 of the judgment are to the following effect:-

“20. Learned Shri Ram Jethmalani and learned Shri K.T.S. Tulsi, Sr. Advocates appearing for accused Sanjay Chandra, learned Shri Mukul Rohtagi, Sr. Advocate appearing for accused Vinod Goenka, learned Shri Soli Sorabjee and learned Shri Ranjit Kumar, Sr. Advocates appearing for accused Gautam Doshi, learned Shri Rajiv Nayar, Sr. Advocate appearing for accused Hari Nair and learned Shri Neeraj Kishan Kaul, Sr. Advocate appearing for accused Surendra Pipara, at the outset, have contended that the order of learned Special Judge dated 20th April, 2011 rejecting the bail of the petitioners is violative of the mandate of Section 88 Cr.P.C. It is contended that admittedly the petitioners were neither arrested during investigation nor they were produced in custody along with the charge sheet as envisaged under Section 170 Cr.P.C. Therefore, the trial court was supposed to release the petitioners on bail by seeking bonds with or without sureties in view of Section 88 Cr.P.C. Thus, it is urged that on this count alone, the petitioners are entitled to bail.

21. The interpretation sought to be given by the petitioners is misconceived and based upon incorrect reading of Section 88 Cr.P.C., which is reproduced thus:

“88. Power to take bond for appearance.—When any person for whose appearance or arrest the officer presiding in any Court is empowered to issue a summons or warrant, is present in such court, such officer may require such person to execute a bond, with or without sureties, for his appearance in such court, or any other court to which the case may be transferred for trial”

22. On reading of the above, it is obvious that Section 88 Cr.P.C.

empowers the court to seek bond for appearance from any person present in the court in exercise of its judicial discretion. The Section also provides that aforesaid power is not unrestricted and it can be exercised only against such persons for whose appearance or arrest Bail Applications No.508/2011, 509/2011, 510/2011, 511/2011 & 512/2011 Page 21 of 34 the court is empowered to issue summons or warrants. The words used in the Section are “may require such person to execute a bond“ and any person present in the court. The user of word “may” signifies that Section 88 Cr.P.C. is not mandatory and it is a matter of judicial discretion of the court. The word “any person” signifies that the power of the court defined under Section 88 Cr.P.C. is not accused specific only, but it can be exercised against other category of persons such as the witness whose presence the court may deem necessary for the purpose of inquiry or trial. Careful reading of Section 88 Cr.P.C. makes it evident that it is a general provision defining the power of the court, but it does not provide how and in what manner this discretionary power is to be exercised. Petitioners are accused of having committed non- bailable offences. Therefore, their case for bail falls within Section 437 of the Code of Criminal Procedure which is the specific provision dealing with grant of bail to an accused in cases of non-bailable offences. Thus, on conjoint reading of Section 88 and 437 Cr.P.C., it is obvious that Section 88 Cr.P.C. is not an independent Section and it is subject to Section 437 Cr.P.C.

Therefore, I do not find merit in the contention that order of learned Special Judge refusing bail to the petitioners is illegal being violation of Section 88 Cr.P.C.”

26. Another judgment which is relevant in this context is judgment of Patna High Court in Dr. Anand Deo Singh Vs. The State of Bihar & Ors., 2000(2) Patna Law Journal Reports 686. The Patna High Court had occasion to consider Section 88 Cr.P.C. where in Para 18, following has been held:-

“18. In my considered view, Section 88 of the Code is an enabling provision, which vests a discretion in the Magistrate to exercise power under said Section asking the person to execute a bond for appearance only in bailable cases or in trivial cases and it cannot be resorted to in a case of serious offences. Section 436 of the Code itself provides that bond may be asked for only in cases of bailable offences.”

27. This Court had occasion to consider Section 91 of Cr.P.C. 1898, which was akin to present Section 88 of 1973 Act, in Madhu Limaye & Anr. Vs. Ved Murti & Ors., (1970) 3 SCC 739, following observations were made in context of Section 91:-

“…………….In fact Section 91 applies to a person who is present in Court and is free because it speaks of his being bound over, to appear on another day before the Court. That shows that the person must be a free agent whether to appear or not. If the person is al- ready under arrest and in custody, as were the petitioners, their appearance depended not on their own violation but on the violation of the person who had their custody. This section was therefore inappropriate and the ruling cited in support of the case were wrongly decided as was held by the Special Bench……………….”

28. Another judgment relied by the appellant is judgment of Punjab & Haryana High Court in Arun Sharma Vs. Union of India & Ors., 2016 (3) RCR (Criminal) 883. In the above case, the Punjab & Haryana High Court was considering Section 88 Cr.P.C. read with Section 65 of Prevention of Money Laundering Act. In the above context, following has been observed in Para 11:-

“11. On the same principles, in absence of anything inconsistent in PMLA with section 88 of Cr.P.C., when a person voluntarily appears before the Special Court for PMLA pursuant to issuance of process vide summons or warrant, and offers submission of bonds for further appearances before the Court, any consideration of his application for furnishing such bond, would be necessarily governed by section 88 of the Cr.P.C. read with section 65 of PMLA. Section 88 of the Cr.P.C. reads as follows-

“88. Power to take bond for appearance.–When any person for whose appearance or arrest the officer presiding in any Court is empowered to issue a summons or warrant, is present in such Court, such officer may require such person to execute a bond, with or without sureties, for his appearance in such Court, or any other Court to which the case may be transferred for trial.”

This Section 88 (corresponding to section 91 of Cr.P.C., 1898) would not apply qua a person whose appearance is not on his volition, but is brought in custody by the authorities as held by the Constitution Bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Madhu Limaye v. Ved Murti, AIR 1971 SC 2481 wherein it was observed that-

“18…….In fact Section 91 applies to a person who is present in Court and is free because it speaks of his being bound over, to appear on another day before the Court. That shows that the person must be a free agent whether to appear or not. If the person is already under arrest and in custody, as were the petitioners, their appearance depended not on their own volition but on the volition of the person who had their custody…….”

Thus, in a situation like this where the accused were not arrested under section 19 of PMLA during investigations and were not produced in custody for taking cognizance, section 88 of Cr.P.C. shall apply upon appearance of the accused person on his own volition before the Trial Court to furnish bonds for further appearances.”

29. The present is not a case where accused was a free agent whether to appear or not. He was already issued non-bailable warrant of arrest as well as proceeding of Sections 82 and 83 Cr.P.C. had been initiated. In this view of the matter he was not entitled to the benefit of Section

88.

30. In the Punjab & Haryana case, the High Court has relied on judgment of this Court in Madhu Limaye Vs. Ved Murti (supra) and held that Section 88 shall be applicable since accused were not arrested under Section 19 of PMLA during investigation and were not taken into custody for taking cognizance. What the Punjab & Haryana High Court missed, is that this Court in the same paragraph had observed “that shows that the person must be a free agent whether to appear or not”. When accused was issued warrant of arrest to appear in the Court and proceeding under Sections 82 and 83 Cr.P.C. has been initiated, he cannot be held to be a free agent to appear or not to appear in the Court. We thus are of the view that the Punjab & Haryana High Court has not correctly applied Section 88 in the aforesaid case.

31. We thus conclude that the word ‘may’ used in Section 88 confers a discretion on the Court whether to accept a bond from an accused from a person appearing in the Court or not. The both Special Judge, C.B.I. as well as the High Court has given cogent reasons for not exercising the power under Section 88 Cr.P.C. We do not find any infirmity in the view taken by the Special Judge, C.B.I. as well as the High Court in coming to the conclusion that accused was not entitled to be released on acceptance of bond under Section 88 Cr.P.C. We thus do not find any error in the impugned judgment of the High Court.

32. Shri Mukul Rohtagi, learned senior counsel for the appellant has placed reliance on recent judgment of this Court dated 06.02.2018 in Dataram Singh Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh & Anr., Criminal Appeal No. 227 of 2018. Learned counsel for the appellant submits that this Court has elaborately explained principles for grant or refusal of bail. This Court in Paras 6 and 7 made following observations:-

“6. The historical background of the provision for bail has been elaborately and lucidly explained in a recent decision delivered in Nikesh Tarachand Shah v. Union of India, 2017 (13) SCALE 609 going back to the days of the Magna Carta. In that decision, reference was made to Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia v. State of Punjab, (1980) 2 SCC 565 in which it is observed that it was held way back in Nagendra v. King-Emperor, AIR 1924 Cal 476 that bail is not to be withheld as a punishment. Reference was also made to Emperor v. Hutchinson, AIR 1931 All 356 wherein it was observed that grant of bail is the rule and refusal is the exception. The provision for bail is therefore age-old and the liberal interpretation to the provision for bail is almost a century old, going back to colonial days.

7. However, we should not be understood to mean that bail should be granted in every case. The grant or refusal of bail is entirely within the discretion of the judge hearing the matter and though that discretion is unfettered, it must be exercised judiciously and in a humane manner and compassionately. Also, conditions for the grant of bail ought not to be so strict as to be incapable of compliance, thereby making the grant of bail illusory.”

33. In the facts of the aforesaid case, the Court held that the trial court as well as the High Court ought to have exercised the discretion in granting the bail to the appellant. This Court in above circumstances, granted the bail to the appellant of that case. There cannot be any dispute to the proposition as laid down by this Court with regard to grant or refusal of the bail, which are well settled. The discretion to grant bail has to be exercised judiciously and in a humane manner and compassionately as has been laid down by this Court in the above case.

34. Shri Mukul Rohtagi, learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant submits that since the appellant has made a request to set him on liberty by accepting the bond before the Special Judge, C.B.I. as well may release the appellant on bail. He further submits that appellant is a person with 60% disability. He further submits that the loss which was alleged in the First Information Report is secured and this Court may exercise its jurisdiction in granting the bail to the appellant.

35. There are two reasons due to which we are unable to accept the request of the appellant to consider the case of bail of the appellant in present proceeding. Firstly, this Court on two earlier occasions had granted liberty to the appellant to make an application for bail before the trial court, the appellant has not filed any application for bail before the trial court and had insisted on releasing him on acceptance of bond under Section 88 Cr.P.C. Secondly, in the facts of this case, trial court is to first consider the prayer of grant of bail of the appellant. We, thus, are of the view that as and when the appellant files a bail application, the same shall be considered forthwith by trial court taking into consideration his claim of disability and other relevant grounds which are urged or may be urged by the appellant before it.

36. With these observations, the appeal is disposed of.

……………………..J.

( A.K. SIKRI ) ……………………..J.

NEW DELHI, ( ASHOK BHUSHAN )
February 23, 2018.

Bombay High Court Judgement On Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954

MASTI

IN THE HIGH COURT OF JUDICATURE AT BOMBAY,

NAGPUR BENCH, NAGPUR.

CRIMINAL APPEAL NO. 721 OF 2002

The State of Maharashtra,
through Mr. Jagdish Khushal Kamble,
Food Inspector, Food and Drug
Administration, M.S. Chandrapur,
Tahsil and District Chandrapur. …. APPELLANT

VERSUS

Mangala w/o Harishchandra Badkhal,
Aged about 28 years,
Occupation – Business,
Proprietor of M/s. Sweta Spices Industries,
Plot No.C-26, M.I.D.C., Chandrapur. …. RESPONDENT

______________________________________________________________

Smt. Mayuri Deshmukh, Additional Public Prosecutor for the appellant,
Shri R.R. Vyas, Advocate for the respondent.
______________________________________________________________

CORAM : ROHIT B. DEO, J.

DATE OF RESERVING THE JUDGMENT
: 10-10-2017
DATE OF PRONOUNCING THE JUDGMENT : 12-02-2018

JUDGMENT :

The State is in appeal challenging the judgment and order dated 24-6-2002 rendered by the learned Chief Judicial Magistrate, Chandrapur in Regular Criminal Case 251/1998, by and under which 2 apeal721.02 the respondent-accused is acquitted of offence under Section 7(i) read with Section 2(ia)(a) punishable under Section 16(1)(a)(ii), 7(v) read with Rule 44-AAA punishable under Section 16(1)(a)(ii) of the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 (“Act” for short).

2. The prosecution case is thus :

Mr. M.S. Kembalkar, Food Inspector, Chandrapur accompanied by panch witness, Mr. Arun Meshram inspected the proprietary firm of the accused “M/s. Shweta Spices Industries”. Samples of black pepper were collected, one sample was sent to the Public Analyst, Public Health Laboratory, Nagpur for test and analysis on 28-11-1995 and the remaining samples were handed over to Local (Health) Authority and Assistant Commissioner, Food & Drug Administration, Chandrapur. The report of the Public Analyst, Public Health Laboratory, Nagpur dated 04-1-1996 was received on 10-1-1996. The said report states that the sample confirmed to the standards specified in the Prevention of Food Adulteration Rules, 1955 (“Rules” for short). Mr. M.S. Kembalkar requested the Local (Health) Authority and Assistant Commissioner Food & Drug Administration, Chandrapur to send the sample to another Public Analyst for test and analysis as is contemplated under Section 13(2-E) of the Act. The 3 apeal721.02 second sample was sent for testing and analysis through Public Health Laboratory, Pune and the report was received on 23-2-1996 stating that the sample was coated with mineral oil in contravention of Rule 44-AAA of the Rules.

The Food Inspector Mr. Kamble instituted Criminal Case 251/1998 before the learned Chief Judicial Magistrate, Chandrapur, and by the judgment and order impugned, the accused is acquitted on the ground that Clause A.05.17 of Appendix “B” to the Rules permits extraneous matter including dust, stalks, leafy matter and other foreign matter to the extent of 3% by weight. The learned Chief Judicial Magistrate has held that mineral oil is a foreign matter and unless it is established that the percentage of mineral oil in the black pepper exceeds 3%, contravention of Rule 44-AAA of the Rules is not proved.

3. Smt. Mayuri Deshmukh, learned Additional Public Prosecutor submits that the reason recorded by the learned Chief Judicial Magistrate is contrary to the statutory scheme. The submission is well merited. Rule 44-AAA of the Rules reads thus :

“44-AAA. No person shall sell or offer or expose for sale or have in his premises for the purpose of sale under any description, food articles which have been coated with mineral oil, except where the addition of mineral oil is 4 apeal721.02 permitted in accordance with the standards laid down in Appendix “B”.”

The statutory scheme is that no person shall sell or store in his premises for the purpose of sale black pepper which is coated with mineral oil, except where the addition of mineral oil is permitted in accordance with the standards laid down in Appendix “B”. The reliance placed by the learned Chief Judicial Magistrate on Clause A.05.17 of Appendix “B” is misplaced. The legislative intent is that use of mineral oil in black pepper is impermissible unless the use is specifically permitted. No provision is brought to my notice which specifically permits the use of mineral oil in black pepper. In the teeth of the specific provision, the learned Chief Judicial Magistrate committed a serious error of law in holding that mineral oil can be considered as “other foreign matter” and unless it is established that the percentage of the mineral oil exceeds 3%, contravention of Rules is not established.

4. However, notwithstanding the erroneous reason recorded by the learned Chief Judicial Magistrate, I am not inclined to allow the appeal. The record reveals that having received the first report on 10-1-1996, Mr. Kembalkar (P.W.2) requested the Local (Health) 5 apeal721.02 Authority and Assistant Commissioner, Food & Drug Administration, Chandrapur to send black pepper sample to another Public Analyst for test and analysis. Section 13 sub-section (2-E) of the Act reads thus :

“Section 13. Report of Public Analyst – (1) The Public Analyst shall deliver ………

(2-E). If, after considering the report, if any, of the Food Inspector or otherwise, the Local (Health) Authority is of the opinion that the report delivered by the public analyst under sub-section (1) is erroneous, the said Authority shall forward one of the Parts of the sample kept by it to any other public analyst for analysis and if the report of the result of the analysis of that part of the sample by that other public analyst is to the effect that the article of food is adulterated, the provisions of sub-sections (2) to (2D) shall, so far as may be, apply.”

5. A learned Single Judge of this Court has observed in Shri Santoshkumr Ramchandra Rathi vs. State of Maharashtra, through Mr. S.P. Nandanwar, Food Inspector, Food and Drug Administration, Wardha reported in 2017 SCC Online Bom. 7457, thus :

“19. Sub-section (2-E) of Section 13 of the said Act, reads as under :

Section 13. Report of Public Analyst – (1) The Public Analyst shall deliver ………

(2-E). If, after considering the report, if any, of the Food Inspector or otherwise, the Local (Health) Authority is of the 6 apeal721.02 opinion that the report delivered by the public analyst under sub-section (1) is erroneous, the said Authority shall forward one of the Parts of the sample kept by it to any other public analyst for analysis and if the report of the result of the analysis of that part of the sample by that other public analyst is to the effect that the article of food is adulterated, the provisions of sub-sections (2) to (2D) shall, so far as may be, apply.

20. From the said provision, it is clear that the power is vested with the Local (Health) Authority to send other part of samples to any other Public Analyst for analysis.

21. Aforesaid provision of Sub-section (2-E) of Section 13 of the said Act opens with, if, after considering the report, if any, of the Food Inspector or otherwise, the Local (Health)Authority is of the opinion that the report delivered by the public analyst under sub-section (1) is erroneous, the said Authority can send the sample for re-analysis to any other public analyst.

22. Thus, for exercising powers under Sub-section (2-E) of Section 13 of the said Act, firstly there should be a report of a Public Analyst given under Sub-section (1) of Section 13 of the said Act and it should be before the Authority. Once that report is before the Local Health Authority and if the Authority is of the opinion that the report is erroneous, the said Authority can send the other sample for re-analysis.

23. In the present case, report Exhibit 36 of the Public Analyst at Nagpur was before PW2 the Assistant Commissioner, Food and Drugs Administration at Wardha Shri Baban Baburaoji Gayki on 19.9.1992. According to the evidence of Shri Baban Gayki, he decided to send report of the Public Analyst at Nagpur for showing Tea power is upto standard and genuine. Shri Baban Gayki is totally silent in his evidence that after perusing report Exhibit 36 of the Public Analyst at Nagpur, it was his opinion that the said report is erroneous.”

7 I am in respectful agreement with the afore reproduced observations of the learned Single Judge.

6. No evidence is adduced whatsoever, that the Local (Health) Authority was satisfied that the first report received is erroneous. In this view of the matter, and for reasons other than the reasons recorded by the learned Chief Judicial Magistrate, the accused is entitled to be acquitted of the offence under Section 7(i) read with Section 2(ia)(a) punishable under Section 16(1)(a)(ii), 7(v) read with Rule 44-AAA punishable under Section 16(1)(a)(ii) of the Act.

7. The appeal is without substance and is rejected.

JUDGE adgokar

Bombay High Court Judgement On Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure

MASTI

IN THE HIGH COURT OF JUDICATURE AT BOMBAY
: NAGPUR BENCH : NAGPUR.

CRIMINAL APPLICATION (APL) NO. 793 OF 2017

APPLICANT : Mr. Venu Srinivasan,
Chairman and Managing Director,
TVS Motor Company Limited,
At ‘Jayalakshmi Estates’, No. 29,
Haddowes Road, Chennai-600 006
(Tamil Nadu)

VERSUS

NON-APPLICANT : The State of Maharashtra,
At the instance of Shri D. P. Devle,
Inspector of Legal Metrology, Mangrulpir,
Mangrulpir Division, Tahsil Mangrulpir,
District Washim (Maharashtra)

———————————————————————————————-
Shri Sunil V. Manohar, Senior Advocate with Shri A.A. Naik,
Advocate for the applicant.
Shri Vinod A. Thakre, A.P.P. for the non-applicant/State.
———————————————————————————————-

CORAM : V. M. DESHPANDE, J.

DATE : FEBRUARY 12, 2018

ORAL JUDGMENT

Rule. Rule is made returnable forthwith. Heard finally with the consent of the parties.

2. Heard Shri Sunil V. Manohar, the learned senior counsel appearing with Shri Akshay A. Naik, the learned counsel for the 2 APL793.17.odt applicant and Shri Vinod A. Thakre, the learned Additional Public Prosecutor for the non-applicant/State.

3. The Rule is taken up for final hearing in view of the issuance of notice for final disposal by this Court on 22.11.2017 (Coram : A.S.Chandurkar, J.).

4. By the present application under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, the applicant is praying for (1) quashing and setting aside the criminal complaint case being Summary Criminal Case No. 64/2013 pending on the file of learned Judicial Magistrate, First Class, Manora ; and (2) setting aside the impugned order of issuance of process dated 08.7.2016 passed by the learned Judicial Magistrate, First Class, Manora in the said criminal complaint case.

5. Shri Manohar, the learned senior counsel for the applicant submits that though, the product “Package of Valve Kit” is manufactured by the Company, the manufacturing company is not prosecuted in a criminal complaint. Further, according to his submission, the complaint viz-a-viz present applicant lacks the 3 APL793.17.odt assertion of material particulars to show that the applicant at the relevant time was in-charge of conduct of business or responsible for day to day affairs of the company. He, therefore, in view of the provisions of sub-clause(ii) of Clause (a) of sub-section 1 of section 49 of The Legal Metrology Act, 2009 (hereinafter referred to as “the Act of 2009” for the sake of brevity) submitted that the complaint cannot proceed against the present applicant. He also submitted that the order impugned, issuing the summons against the applicant, is a non-speaking order and therefore, cannot stand to the scrutiny of law. He relies on the judgment delivered by this Court in Criminal Application No. 1842/1996 (Charandas Vallabhdas Mariwala and others .Vs. State of Maharashtra) (Coram : V.M. Deshpande, J.) and submitted that the complaint be set aside.

6. Per contra, Mr. Thakre, the learned Additional Public Prosecutor for the State would submit that since there is no nomination, as contemplated in sub-section 2 of Section 49 of the Act of 2009, the present applicant is joined as an accused. He relies on a reported decision of this Court in 2016(1) All M.R. 681 in the case of Maruti Suzuki India Limited .vs. State of Maharashtra and others and submitted that the application be dismissed.

7. It would be useful to reproduce herein below the relevant provision of sub-sections (1), (2) and (4) of Section 49 of the Act of 2009 :

“49. Offences by companies and power of court to publish name, place of business, etc., for companies convicted.

(1) Where an offence under this Act has been committed by a company,

(a) (i) the person, if any, who has been nominated under sub-section (2) to be in charge of, and responsible to, the company for the conduct of the business of the company (hereinafter in this section referred to as a person responsible); or

(ii) where no person has been nominated, every person who at the time the offence was committed was in charge of, and was responsible to, the company for the conduct of the business of the company; and

(b) the company, shall be deemed to be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly:

Provided that nothing contained in this sub-section shall render any such person liable to any punishment provided in this Act if he proves that the offence was committed without his knowledge and that he exercised all due diligence to prevent the commission of such offence.

(2) Any company may, by order in writing, authorise any of its directors to exercise all such powers and take all such steps as may be necessary 5 APL793.17.odt or expedient to prevent the commission by the company of any offence under this Act and may give notice to the Director or the concerned Controller or any legal metrology officer authorised in this behalf by such Controller (hereinafter in this section referred to as the authorised officer) in such form and in such manner as may be prescribed, that it has nominated such director as the person responsible, along with the written consent of such director for being so nominated. Explanation.–

Where a company has different establishments or branches or different units in any establishment or branch, different persons may be nominated under this sub-section in relation to different establishments or branches or units and the person nominated in relation to any establishment, branch or unit shall be deemed to be the person responsible in respect of such establishment, branch or unit.

(3) …….

(4) Notwithstanding anything contained in the foregoing sub-sections, where an offence under this Act has been committed by a company and it is proved that the offence has been committed with the consent or connivance of, or is attributable to the neglect on the part of, any director, manager, secretary or other officer, not being a person nominated under sub-section (2), such director, manager, secretary or other officer shall also be deemed to be guilty of that offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.

6 APL793.17.odt

8. Section 49 of the Act of 2009 deals with the offence by the company and the powers of the Court to publish name and place of business etc. for companies convicted.

9. As per sub-section 2 of Section 49 of the Act, it is for the company to nominate or authorize any person by order in writing with all such powers and to take all such steps as necessary and expedient to prevent the commission by the company of any offence under this Act.

If a person is nominated under sub-Section 2 of Section 49 of the Act, then under sub-clause (i) of Clause (a) of sub-section (1) of Section 49, such person so nominated has to be held in-charge of and responsible to the company for the conduct of the business of the said company. Where no person has been nominated, every person, who at the time of the offence was committed, was in-charge of and was responsible to the company for the conduct of the business of the company, are responsible as per sub-clause (ii) of Clause (a) of Sub-section (1) of Section 49 of the Act of 2009.

10. A copy of the complaint is placed on record and it is at Annexure-G at page nos.43 to 47 in the compilation of the present 7 APL793.17.odt application.

11. The complaint is lodged in the Court of learned Judicial Magistrate, First Class, Manora, which was registered as Summary Criminal Case No. 64/2013 by complainant Shri D. P. Devade, who is the Inspector of Legal Metrology Division, appointed under Section 14(1) of Legal Metrology Act, 2009. His power to lodge the complaint are not in dispute.

12. According to the complaint, on 05.9.2012, the complainant took inspection at M/s Soham Automobiles, situated at Mangrulpir Road, Sambhaji Nagar, Manora, District Washim. That time, he noticed a product namely Package of Valve Kit kept for sale, on which M.R.P. was not printed as per Rule and therefore, there was violation of Section 18(1) of the Legal Metrology Act, 2009 read with Rules 6(1), 2(m) of Legal Metrology (Package Commodity) Rules, 2011, punishable under Section 38(1) of the Act of 2009. The complainant sent notice under Proforma ‘A’ to the company on 10.9.2012 and ultimately on 21.2.2013 he filed the complaint.

13. The cause title of the complaint reads as under :

COMPLAINT In the Court of Hon. J.M.F.C., Manora,

1. Name of the Shri D. P. Devade complainant and his O/o Inspector of Legal Metrology, address Chandak Building, Dargah Road, Mangrulpir Division, Mangrulpir, Tq. Mangrulpir, Dist. Washim

2. Names and Shri Venu Shrinivasan (M.D.) and other addresses of the of M/s TVS Motor Company Ltd. accused. Regd. Office : Jayalakshmi Estates, 5th floor, 8, Haddows Road, Chennai – 600 006.

Ph. No. 91043447 270059 E-mail : customercarepasrts@tvsmotorco. in.

Home Address :

Shri Venu Srinivasan, 03, Adyar Club Gate Road, R.A. Puram, Chennai, Pin. 600 028, T.N. (India)

14. Thus, from the cause title, it is clear that the complaint is lodged against the present applicant alone and though it stated “and others of M/s TVS Motor Company Ltd.”, the said TVS Motor Co. Ltd. is not made an accused nor the ‘others’ are specified as accused.

15. From the complaint itself, it is clear that the product in question is manufactured by the company as it could be seen from 9 APL793.17.odt the following averments made in paragraph 6 of the complaint, the relevant are produced herein below :

“6. Particular of offence : During General inspection on dated 05.9.2012 at M/s Soham Automobiles, Mangrulpir Road, Sambhaji Nagar, in front of Shivneri Servo Petrol Pump, Manora, Tq. Manora, Dist. Washim, Package of Valve Kit was kept for sale, manufactured by accused company, on which, M.R.P. was not printed as per Rule. Hence, violation of Section 18(1) of Legal Metrology Act, 2009 read with Rule 6(1), 2(m) of Legal Metrology (Package Commodity) Rules, 2011 punishable under Section 38(1). Hence, this office sent Proforma ‘A’ notice to said accused company on 10.09.2012 and accused company wanted the permission to inspect the seized package. This office gave the permission to physical inspection to accused company.”

16. Thus, from the aforesaid, it is clear that the product in question is manufactured by the company. Under the Act of 2009, a company can be prosecuted for any contravention of the Act or various Rules made thereunder. Therefore, it was obligatory on the part of the complainant to join the company as an accused. This non-joinder of the company as accused itself is fatal for the complainant.

17. Be that as it may. The complaint is totally silent in respect of the role of the present applicant. Further, the law in that behalf is well crystalized by the Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of Pepsico India Holdings Private Limited .vs. Food Inspector and another, reported in (2011) 1 SCC 176, more particulary in paragraph 50 of the said reported judgment. The said Supreme Court case was relating to the offence under Food Adulteration Act, 1954. The provisions of the Food Adulteration Act and the present Act of 2009 in respect of the offence by the companies are pari materia. In Pepsico India Holdings Pvt. Ltd.’s case cited supra, the Hon’ble Apex Court has observed that it is well established that in a complaint against a Company and its Directors, the Complainant has to indicate in the complaint itself as to whether the Directors concerned were either in charge of or responsible to the Company for its day to day management or whether they were responsible to the Company for the conduct of its business. A mere bald statement that a person was a Director of the Company against which certain allegations had been made is not sufficient to make such Director liable in the absence of any specific allegations regarding his role in the management of the Company.

18. In addition to the aforesaid observations of the Hon’ble Apex Court, in the present case, the Company itself is not before the Court. The complaint is totally silent and is lacking from the material particulars so also the basic averment that the present applicant was in-charge of or was responsible person for conduct of the business of the said company. Therefore, the complaint, in view of the law laid down by the Hon’ble Courts and in Charandas Vallabhdas Mariwala’s case, cited supra, is required to be set aside.

19. So far as the Division Bench judgment of this Court in Maruti Suzuki India Ltd.’s case, relied on by the learned Additional Public Prosecutor for the State is concerned, the said case is distinguishable on the facts itself. In the said case, in spite of the authorization was given in sub-section 2 of Section 49 of the Act, all the Directors were joined as accused persons and therefore, while interpreting Section 49 of the Act of 2009, the Division Bench of this Court found that all the Directors need not be joined as the accused persons. However, in my view, the said judgment cannot come to the rescue of the learned Additional Public Prosecutor for the simple reason that in the present case, though, there is no nomination from the Company as contemplated under sub-section 2 of Section 49 of 12 APL793.17.odt the Act, at the same time the complaint is conspicuously silent in respect that the present applicant was in-charge of and was responsible for day to day business of the company. Therefore, sub- clause (ii) of Clause (a) of sub-section (1) of Section 49 of the Act cannot be pressed into service.

20. Further, the order of issuance of process is dated 08.7.2016. It reads as under :

O Issue summons to accused.

Sd/-

J.M.F.C, 08.07.16

21. Summoning of an accused in a criminal case is a very serious matter. The order impugned, in my view, shows that it is passed in most mechanical manner. The law in that behalf is well settled in Pepsi Foods Ltd. and another .vs. Special Judicial Magistrate and others, reported in (1998) 5 SCC 749 and in particular paragraph 28, which reads as under :

“28. Summoning of an accused in a criminal case is a serious matter. Criminal law cannot be set into motion as a matter of course. It is not that the complainant has to bring only two witnesses to 13 APL793.17.odt support his allegations in the complaint to have the criminal law set into motion. The order of the magistrate summoning the accused must reflect that he has applied his mind to the facts of the case and the law applicable thereto. He has to examine the nature of allegations made in the complaint and the evidence both oral and documentary in support thereof and would that be sufficient for the complainant to succeed in bringing charge home to the accused. It is not that the Magistrate is a silent spectator at the time of recording of preliminary evidence before summoning of the accused. Magistrate has to carefully scrutinize the evidence brought on record and may even himself put questions to the complainant and his witnesses to elicite answers to find out the truthfullness of the allegations or otherwise and then examine if any offence is prima facie committed by all or any of the accused.”

22. The order impugned completely fails to show what weighed in the mind of the learned Magistrate to issue process against the applicant. In that view of the matter, I am of the view that the applicant has made out a case in his favour. Consequently, I pass the following order :

ORDER

(i) The Criminal Application is allowed.

(ii) The impugned order dated 08.7.2016, passed by the learned Judicial Magistrate, First Class, Manora in Summary Criminal Case No. 64/2013, is hereby set aside.

(iii) The proceedings of Summary Criminal Case No. 64/2013, pending on the file of learned Judicial Magistrate, First Class, Manora are hereby quashed and set aside.

(iv) With this, the criminal application is allowed and disposed of. Rule is made absolute. No costs.

JUDGE Diwale

Bombay High Court Judgement On Workmen’s Compensation

MASTI

IN THE HIGH COURT OF JUDICATURE OF BOMBAY
BENCH AT AURANGABAD
FIRST APPEAL NO.2021 OF 2010

01 Smt.Sangita Sharad Ahire,
age: 32 years, Occ: Household,

02 Ku.Shital Sharad Ahire,
age: 8 years, Occ: Education,

03 Chi. Avinash Sharad Ahire,
age: 7 years, Occ: Education,

04 Ku.Priyanka Sharad Ahire,
age: 5 years, Occ: Education;

Applicant no.1 is for herself and
the Natural guardian of Nos.2 to
4;
All are R/o Talwade, Taluka
Malegaon, District Nasik. Appellants

Versus

01 Dharma Ganpat Shirode,
age: major, Occ: Business,
R/o Talwade, Taluka Malegaon,
District Nasik.

02 The New India Assurance Company
Ltd., Manbhawan, Mahesh Nagar,
Shivaji Circle, Old Agra Road,
Malegaon, District Nasik, through
Branch Manager,
the New India Assurance Company
Ltd., Branch Office – Khandesh Mill
Complex, Jalgaon. Respondents

Mr.M.M.Bhokarikar, advocate for appellants.
Mr.N.N.Desale, advocate for Respondent No.1.
Mr.M.M.Ambhore, advocate for Respondent No.2.

::: Uploaded on – 16/02/2018 ::: Downloaded on – 17/02/2018 01:46:12 :::
{2}
fa202110.odt

CORAM : M.S.SONAK, J.

DATE : 14th February, 2018.

ORAL JUDGMENT :

1 This appeal was admitted on 25.10.2010. In the memo of appeal, following substantial questions of law have been stated, as arisen in the appeal:

(a) Whether the Hon. Commissioner for Workmen’s Compensation and Judge, Labour Court or any other court has discretionary power under Section 4, 4A to change the rate of interest including the date of its application, the amount of compensation and penalty thereon of its own?

(b) Whether the ascertainment of the date of payment regarding the ‘amount falls due’ can be changed by the Hon. Court and whether it is permissible as per the legislation?

(c) Whether the Hon. Commissioner for Workmen’s Compensation and Judge, Labour Court can ignore the provisions of the Evidence Act, 1872 regarding the provision of admission while deciding the case under the Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923?

(d) Whether the Hon. Commissioner for Workmen’s Compensation and Judge, Labour {3} fa202110.odt Court may consider the provisions of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 considering the social approach and aspect of both the legislations, for the payment of higher amount of compensation in the accidental cases?

(e) Whether the decision is based on only surmises and conjuncture, whether it is against the statutory provisions of law and without jurisdiction?

2 Upon perusal of the impugned judgment and award as also the evidence on record, the Commissioner, for no apparent or valid reason, has restricted wages of the workman to Rs.2000/- per month and on the said basis, proceeded to determine the amount of compensation.

In this case, widow of the deceased workman, had deposed that he was employed as a driver with respondent no.1 and was getting salary of Rs.4000/- per month and a bhatta of Rs.60/- per day. The employer i.e. respondent no.1 has himself stepped into witness box and admitted that he was paying the workman salary of Rs.4000/- per month and bhatta of Rs.60/- per day whenever the workman used to go outstation. On behalf of the Insurance Company, no doubt, certain suggestions were put, both to the widow as well as to the employer, in response to the suggestions, the employer had stated that he was not maintaining any accounts.

Learned Counsel for the Insurance Company submits that from this, it is clear that there is no material on record in support of the claim that the workman was drawing salary of Rs.4000/- per month and bhatta of Rs.60/- per day.

{4} However, this is not acceptable. There is ample evidence on record which establishes that the workman was drawing salary of Rs.4000/- per month.

3 Insofar as bhatta is concerned, the employer has stated that the same was payable to the workman only when he was on outstation duty. There is no material on record as to the frequency of such outstation duty. In any case, taking into consideration Explanation II to Section 4(1) of the Employee’s Compensation Act,1923, where the monthly wages of a workman exceed four thousand rupees, his monthly wages for the purposes of computation of compensation in terms of sub-clauses (a) and (b) of Section 4(1) is deemed to be Rs.4000/- only. Therefore, in this case, wages of the workman can be taken at Rs.4000/- per month.

4 On the basis of school leaving certificate, the Commissioner has correctly determined age of the workman as 37 and consequently, relevant factor at Rs.192.14. Since, 50% of the wages have to be taken into consideration for multiplication with relevant factor, the compensation will have to be determined at Rs.2000/- x Rs.192.14 = Rs.3,84,800/-.

5 In this case, the Commissioner has awarded interest @ 6% p.a. and that too from the date of the impugned award. In terms of provisions of Section 4-A of the Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923, the compensation in terms of Section 4 is required to be paid as soon as it falls due. The compensation was due within one month from the date of accident. Since, in this case, the employer had knowledge of the accident, therefore, the compensation fell due {5} on 11.03.2003 since the accident took place on 11.02.2003.

This provision direct payment of simple interest @ 12% p.a. or at such higher rate, as may be specified by the Central Government, by notification in the Official Gazette. In this case, therefore, the Commissioner was not right in awarding 6% p.a. interest in place of 12% p.a. Such interest was required to be awarded not from the date of the award but from 11.03.2003, which was the date on which compensation fell due.

This is consistent with the law laid down by this Court in the case of Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd., Akola Branch Vs. Smt. Sunita wd/o Gajanan Kale and others, 2013 (5) ABR 831. Even the Hon’ble Supreme Court, in the case of Oriental Insurance Co.Ltd. Vs. Mohd. Nasir & another, AIR 2009 SC (Supp) 1619, has held that starting point for computing interest under the Workmen’s Compensation Act is not the date of the award, but when the amount fell due.

6 On the aspect of penalty, Section 4-A (3)(b) provides that where any employer is in default in paying the compensation due under this Act within one month from the date it fell due, the Commissioner shall, if, in his opinion, there is no justification for the delay, direct that the employer shall, in addition to the amount of the arrears and interest thereon, pay a further sum not exceeding fifty per cent of such amount by way of penalty. The proviso states that the order of penalty shall not be passed under clause (b) without giving a reasonable opportunity to the employer to show cause why it should not be passed.

7 Since, the Commissioner has not even adverted to the provisions of Section 4-A (3)(b) and failed to impose any penalty {6}
upon the employer, the omission is required to be corrected in this appeal. In Dattatraya Layappa Koli & others Vs. Maharashtra State Electricity Distribution Company, through Executive Engineer, 2010 (2) Bom.C.R. 51, this Court has held that grant of interest and penalty are statutory requirements and, therefore, omission to grant the same, can be corrected in the appeal under this Act.

8 Taking into consideration the proviso to Section 4-A (3)

(b), learned Counsel for the employer was afforded an opportunity to show cause as to why penalty should not be imposed on the employer. He submits that the vehicle in question was insured and, therefore, he was dependent upon the Insurance Company to assume the liability. He submits that in utmost good faith, he deposed in the proceedings and stated true and correct particulars as regards income of the deceased workman.

It is submitted that even the employer is an agriculturist and is not in a best financial position. He submits that taking into consideration all these factors, no penalty may be imposed upon the employer. The factors stated by the learned Counsel for the employer are no doubt factors which are required to be taken into consideration by way of mitigation.

Accordingly, in the facts and circumstances of the present case, it will be appropriate that the employer is required to pay an amount of Rs.25,000/- by way of penalty. The penalty amount will have to be paid by the employer himself. The Hon’ble Supreme Court, in the case of Ved Prakash Garg Vs. Premi Devi and others (1997) 8 SCC 1, has made it clear that the liability to pay the penalty cannot be placed upon the Insurance Company.

{7} This appeal is, therefore, partly allowed and disposed of by the following order:-

(A) The compensation amount is now determined at Rs.3,84,800/- and the Insurance Company is directed to pay the said amount after excluding the amount already paid, within a period of eight weeks from today, to the appellants;

(B) On the aforesaid amount, Insurance Company is also directed to pay interest @ 12% p.a. commencing from 11.03.2003 till the date of actual payment. In computing interest component, the Insurance Company can take proportionate credit for the amount already paid, however, since the amount, already paid, was on the basis that interest was @ 6% p.a., the Insurance Company is directed to pay the difference within eight weeks, since, now it is held that interest is to be levied @ 12% p.a.;

(C) The employer i.e. Respondent No.1 is directed to pay penalty of Rs.25,000/- (Rs.Twenty five thousand), within a period of eight weeks from today to the appellant. In case, such amount is not paid/deposited within a period of eight weeks from today, the same will carry interest @ 12% p.a.;

(D) The Insurance Company may either directly pay to the appellants or deposit the amount before the Commissioner, within eight weeks from today. If deposited, the appellants are permitted to withdraw the said amount unconditionally. Similarly, liberty is granted to Respondent No.1-employer to deposit the amount of penalty before the Commissioner.

{8} 10 Appeal is disposed of in aforesaid terms.

11 Pending Civil Applications, if any, do not survive and stand disposed of accordingly.

M.S.SONAK JUDGE

Bombay High Court Judgement Reg Reforms In Police Dept

MASTI

IN THE HIGH COURT OF JUDICATURE AT BOMBAY

BENCH AT AURANGABAD

SUO MOTO WRIT PETITION NO.7025 OF 2008

The Registrar,
High Court of Bombay,
Bench at Aurangabad.
…PETITIONER

VERSUS

1) The State of Maharashtra,
Through it’s Secretary,
of Home Department,
Mantralaya, Mumbai,

2) The Director General of Police,
Maharashtra State, Maharashtra.

…RESPONDENTS


Mr.S.L. Bhapkar Advocate appointed as Amicus
Curiae for Petitioner.
Mr.A.B. Girase, Government Pleader, for
Respondent Nos. 1 & 2.

CORAM: S.S. SHINDE AND
S.M. GAVHANE, JJ.

DATE OF RESERVING JUDGMENT : 14TH FEBRUARY, 2018 DATE OF PRONOUNCING JUDGMENT: 21ST FEBRUARY, 2018 wp7025.08 JUDGMENT [PER S.S. SHINDE, J.]:

1. The Division Bench of this Court (CORAM:N.V. DABHOLKAR AND N.D. DESHPANDE, JJ.), on 24th November, 2008, passed following order:

“1. Article appeared in daily Lokmat yesterday i.e. dated 23-11-2008 was brought to the notice of Registrar (Administration) of this Court, by Advocate Shri S.L. Bhapkar with a suggestion that it may be treated as public interest litigation and placed before appropriate Bench for suitable directions. Registrar has placed that Article before us with the permission of Senior Judge at the Bench. The Article throws lights upon shortcomings, with which the department is suffering and also plight of common individual employed in the department.

2. The news item highlights following defects-

I, Inadequacy of strength (only 137 policemen per 1,00,000 population).

II. Entire machinery is engaged in maintaining law and order and consequently compelled to be negligent towards investigation and Court attendance.

III. Practically each police station is required to maintain law and order over an area of 100 sq. mtrs. which is generally manned with only 50 police personnel.

3. Cases ending in acquittal because the investigating officers are over burdened with number of investigations and consequent failure to collect best possible evidence.

4. No separation of the department into Wings such as law and order, investigation and other duties, etc. We feel that some of the grievances expressed in the news paper article can also be experienced by others in daily life. Society has not flinched in putting unnecessary burden on the police machinery by going to all festivities, gatherings, morchas and protest, etc. With the passage of time, the notions of security have changed and police personnel are required to accord protection to VVIPs and VIPs and at times, even to witnesses, may be under the orders wp7025.08 of the Court, and therefore, a note is required to be taken of inadequacy of man power at the disposal of police force. Needless to say that one is required to agree that, with the pressure of work and with the chronology of priority, law and order, security, investigation and Court attendance, even the criminal law justice system suffers with inadequate assistance from police department and, therefore, we are inclined to take a note of the news paper article, treating the same as public interest litigation.

5. We appoint Advocate Shri S.L. Bhapkar, who has drawn our attention to the matter, as amicus curiae, to prosecute writ petition. We have, therefore, directed Advocate Shri Bhapkar to draft appropriate petition reciting State of Maharashtra, Secretary, Home Department and Director General of Police, as respondents. We have directed Government Pleader Shri N.B. Khandare to render necessary assistance in the form of statistical data, which demonstrates the inadequacies of the department and necessity for strengthening of the force either by addition to the man power or by addition of better equipment or by wp7025.08 reorganization of the force into branches etc. We expect Advocate Shri Bhapkar to file appropriate petition, by 19-12-2008. We also expect learned Government Pleader to keep Secretary, Home Department and Director General of Police, informed of our action of treating the matter as public interest litigation. We expect them to co-operate with the amicus curiae, by placing their difficulties before the Court. this need not be treated as ordinary litigation, wherein adversaries contest.

. Authenticated copy allowed for the use of either party.”

2. Thus, this Court has taken suo moto cognizance of a news published in Daily Lokmat on 23rd November, 2008, in respect of deficiencies in relation to crime investigation at the hands of the police department and inadequacy of infrastructure as well as paucity of police personnel, which has adversely affected the quality of investigation and having an impact on wp7025.08 law and order situation. Therefore, as per the directions given by this Court a Suo Moto Writ Petition has been filed by learned Amicus Curiae Mr. Bhapkar.

3. Thereafter, from time to time, affidavits in replies were filed by the Respondents trying to show that the police department is taking effective steps to address the concern expressed by this Court in its order dated 24th November, 2008.

4. While hearing this Petition on 10th November, 2017, this Court noticed that several issues of public importance which are raised in the Petition, are not replied by the Respondents. This Court in the said order dated 10th November, 2017, has also made reference to the directions issued by the Supreme Court in the case of Prakash Singh and others vs. Union of India and others, 1 1 2006(8) SCC 1 wp7025.08 and also in the case of Vineet Narain and others vs. Union of India and another2.

5. Pursuant to said order, detail affidavit on behalf of the State of Maharashtra has been filed on 9th January, 2018. Paras 5, 6 and 7 of the said affidavit read as under:

“5. I say and submit that as per report dated 1st January, 2017 of Bureau of Police Research and Development, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India regarding policemen per lakh population of all States/UTs in India, the population of State of Maharashtra is 12.09 Crores and sanctioned strength of police personnel is 2,20,126 and according to this report the police personnel per lakh population in the State of Maharashtra is 182. As per abovesaid report the State of Maharashtra is having highest police personnel per lakh population among the most populated States of the Country. Also with respect to the jurisdiction of Aurangabad Commissionerate, Aurangabad city has got a population of 2 1998(1) SCC 226 wp7025.08 16.56 lakhs and sanctioned strength of Police Personnel for Aurangabad Commissionerate is 3730 which comes to 225 police personnel per lakh population of the city.

6. I say and submit that in consideration withs the present population of the State, the Government of Maharashtra has sanctioned total 12043 posts of police personnel vide Government Resolution dated 4th March, 2014 and 20th November, 2014.

7. I say and submit that the State Police force has got a total of 2,20,100 posts of police personnel out of which 2,,07,568 posts have been filled up and total 12,532 posts are vacant. Out of these vacant posts recruitment of total 5265 posts of police constables is under process through the Police Recruitment Examination

– 2017. Further in case of total 3149 vacant posts of Police Sub Inspectors, Maharashtra Public Service Commission has declared the final result on 5th May, 2017 for recruitment of total 828 posts and accordingly appointment of selected candidates is underway and further recruitment of total 322 posts of Police Sub Inspectors is under process at the wp7025.08 level of Maharashtra Public Service Commission. Also the requisition letter for recruitment of total 1400 posts of Police Sub Inspectors has been sent to Maharashtra Public Service Commission.

In order to fill up the vacant posts from the rank of Superintendent of Police to Director General of Police, the meeting of Scrutiny Committee was organized on 6th December, 2017 and the said vacant posts will be filled soon.”

6. Therefore, it appears from the aforesaid portion of the reply that State Government has taken maximum possible efforts/ steps to recruit number of police personnel all over the State of Maharashtra. During the course of hearing of this Petition, learned Government Pleader, on instructions, submits that in this respect if further steps are needed, the Government will take effective steps.

7. So far as the modernization of the police wp7025.08 force is concerned, Para 8 of the reply reads thus:

“8. I say and submit that Government of Maharashtra has taken effective steps for modernization of police force details of which are as follows:-

Modernization of Police Forces Scheme.

I The Modernization of Police Forces Scheme is introduced by Government of India (GoI) since the year 2000-01 wherein, GoI contributes funds along with respective State Governments, in share ratio.

II Until the year 2011-12, the share pattern was 75:25 i.e. Central share 75% and State share 25% respectively. Since the year 2012-13 the share pattern is now in 60:40 ratio.

III Under the scheme, the funds are allocated and utilized by the State Government for the components namely:- Construction of Residential and Non- residential Buildings, Mobility, Equipments, Communication, Arms and wp7025.08 Ammunitions and Training.

IV Since last five years, the total amount of Rs.12068 Cr. has been utilized by GoM out of which, for Construction of Residential and Non-residential Buildings Rs.12.72 Cr. for Mobility Rs.8.26 Cr., for Equipments Rs.46.77 Cr., for Communication Rs.34.44 Cr., for Arms and Ammunitions Rs.15.90 Cr. and for Training and other purposes Rs.2.59 Cr. have been spent.

V. Megacity Policing is a part of Modernization of Police Forces Scheme. Under the Megacity Policing, GoI has sanctioned a total plan of Rs.229.00 Cr. in two phases for city of Bruhanmumbai. In phase I, the GoI has approved plan of Rs.57.00 Cr. in which the central share is of Rs.45.00 Cr. and the respective State share is of Rs.12.00 Cr. The amount Rs.45 Cr. has been released by GoI to GoM in the year 2015-16 and same has been spent for the equipments purchased by Commissioner of Police, Bruhanmumbai.”

8. In respect of modernization of police force also, the Government Pleader submits that it wp7025.08 is an ongoing process and if some steps are remained to be taken, the same will be taken in future by the Government of Maharashtra.

9. Detail reply has been filed in respect of weapon policy of Maharashtra State Police. The reply is filed in respect of ‘finger print bureau’ and steps taken by the State Government in that behalf. There is also reply in respect of ‘Computerization’, with respect of ‘Automated Multi-Modal Biometric Identification System, with respect to ‘Dog Squad Policy’ and with respect to ‘Crime Criminal Tracking Network and System Project’. There is detail reply about improving method of investigation, wherein it is stated that police training for various ranks is organized at four levels and there is also provision with respect to Fire-Arms Training. Therefore, prima facie it appears that the Government of Maharashtra has improved substantially the methods of investigation. In respect of modern technique wp7025.08 in police investigation, the steps taken are mentioned in Para 29 to 33 of the reply.

10. Learned Government Pleader appearing for the State submits that the Government of Maharashtra is committed to ensuring the autonomy and independence of the police force and providing necessary infrastructure to the police stations in the State.

11. Upon careful perusal of various replies filed on behalf of the State and particularly the reply filed on 9th January, 2018, we are of the opinion that the concern expressed by this Court in the order dated 10th November, 2017 has been addressed by the State Government. Apart from it, the statement is made on behalf of the State of Maharashtra that the State Government has taken effective steps to make compliance of the directions issued in the case of Prakash Singh and others vs. Union of India and others, cited supra, wp7025.08 and also in the case of Vineet Narain and others vs. Union of India and another, cited supra. So far as the directions issued by the Supreme Court in the case of Prakash Singh and others vs. Union of India and others, cited supra, and in the case of Vineet Narain and others vs. Union of India and another, cited supra, if there is non-compliance by the State Government, the State Government would be answerable before the Supreme Court. There is also order passed by the Bombay High Court at Principal Seat on 25th November, 2016 in the Public Interest Litigation No.25 of 2014 (Association for aiding Justice vs. Union of India and others), expressing the concern about not taking effective steps by the State to comply the directions issued in the case of Prakash Singh and others vs. Union of India and others, cited supra. In Para 3 of the said Judgment the Court has taken the note of affidavit filed on behalf of the Government of Maharashtra and ultimately the Public Interest Litigation came wp7025.08 to be disposed of at the Principal Seat of the Bombay High Court. Para 4 of the said Judgment dated 25th November, 2016, reads thus:

“4) According to learned counsel for the petitioner, the amendment brought to the existing Act deals with the organization of police other than the police working in the metropolitan city. Therefore there is disparity between the same cadre of police officers who work in the city and who work outside the metropolitan city. If by amendment now proposed or as brought to be in the new amended Act creates such disparity, we are afraid, it becomes service matter which cannot be entertained in a public interest litigation. If any of the police personnel are aggrieved by such alleged disparity so far as their services and the benefits attached to the service, they are always at liberty to approach the court in their individual capacity seeking redressal of their grievances.”

12. Keeping in view the detail affidavit filed by the Government of Maharashtra on 9th wp7025.08 January, 2018 and also discussion in foregoing paragraphs, in our opinion further continuation of the Writ Petition is not necessary. As assured by the Government Pleader/ Public Prosecutor while arguing for the State, the State Government has assured that the State Government will continue to take steps, if already not taken, in future so as to address the concern expressed by this Court through various orders passed from time to time.

13. In that view of the matter, we dispose of this Writ Petition, however with a note of caution to the Respondent State that the State Government shall continue to endeavour to take the effective steps even in future in relation to the issues crop-up in the present Writ Petition.

14. With the above observations and directions, the Writ Petition stands disposed of. Rule made absolute in above terms.

wp7025.08

15. Since, Mr. S.L. Bhapkar, learned counsel is appointed as Amicus Curiae to prosecute the cause in the Suo Moto Petition, his fees be paid as per the schedule of fees maintained by the High Court Legal Services Sub-Committee, Aurangabad. [S.M. GAVHANE, J.] [S.S. SHINDE, J.] asb/FEB18

Bombay High Court Judgement Reg section 34 (5) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996

MASTI

IN THE HIGH COURT OF JUDICATURE AT BOMBAY
ORDINARY ORIGINAL CIVIL JURISDICTION
IN ITS COMMERCIAL JURISDICTION

COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION PETITION NO.434 OF 2017

WITH
NOTICE OF MOTION NO.488 OF 2017
IN
COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION PETITION NO.434 OF 2017

Global Aviation Services Private Limited, )
A Company incorporated under the )
Companies Act, 1956 having its registered )
Office at NKM International House, 6th )
Floor, B.M. Chinai Marg, 178, Backbay )
Reclamation, Mumbai – 400 020. )
)
Presently at G-A, Ground Floor, Pil Court, )
Sherbanoo Co-Operative Housing )
Society Limited, 111, Maharshi Karve )
Road, Marine Lines, Mumbai – 400 020. ) …Petitioner
) …Ori.Claimant

….Versus….

Airport Authority of India )
A Body Corporate constituted by Central )
Government under Airport Authority Act, )
(55 of 1994), having its office at )
Safdarjung Airport, New Delhi – 110 003 ; )
)
And having its Regional Office at the )
Regional Executive Director, Western )
Region, Airports Authority of India, )
Mumbai, C.S.I. Airport, Mumbai – 400 099. ) …Respondent

WITH
COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION PETITION NO.236 OF 2017

WITH
NOTICE OF MOTION NO.690 OF 2017
WITH
NOTICE OF MOTIONNO.165 OF 2017
IN
COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION PETITION NO.236 OF 2017

Ganesh Benzoplast Limited )
A Public Limited Company incorporated )
under the Companies Act, 1956 and )
having its registered Office at 1st Floor, )
Dina Building, 53, Maharshi Karve Road, )
Marine Lines, Mumbai – 400 020. ) …Petitioner

….Versus….

Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited )
A Public Limited Company incorporated )
under the Companies Act, 1956 and )
having its registered Office at 4 & 6, )
Currimbhoy Road, Ballard Estate, )
Mumbai – 400 001. ) …Respondent

WITH
ARBITRATION PETITION NO.159 OF 2017

B. M. Chapalkar & Sons …Petitioner
V/s.
Union Of India …Respondent

WITH
COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION PETITION NO.173 OF 2017

Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority …Petitioner
V/s.
M/s Patel Engineering Ltd. …Respondent

WITH
ARBITRATION PETITION NO.230 OF 2017

Vijay Shree Pal Sharma …Petitioner
V/s.
M/s. L & T Finance Ltd. …Respondent

WITH
ARBITRATION PETITION NO.232 OF 2017

Vijay Shree Pal Sharma …Petitioner
V/s.
M/s. L &T Finance Ltd. …Respondent

WITH
ARBITRATION PETITION NO. 413 OF 2017

Union Of India Through Controller Of Stores …Petitioner
V/s.
Union Roadways Corporation …Respondent

WITH
ARBITRATION PETITION NO.448 OF 2017

SMC Global Securities Ltd. …Petitioner
V/s.
Iqbal Hussain Bhati …Respondent

WITH
ARBITRATION PETITION NO.976 OF 2016

Haresh N. Awatramani & Anr. …Petitioner
V/s.
The Saraswat Co-operative Bank Limited & Ors. …Respondents

WITH
ARBITRATION PETITION NO.399 OF 2017

MIRC Electronic Limited …Petitioner
V/s.
M/s.Power Plaza …Respondent

3

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carbp434-17

WITH
ARBITRATION PETITION NO.484 OF 2017

JM Financial Services Ltd. …Petitioner
V/s.
Gouri Arvind Kapoor …Respondent

WITH
ARBITRATION PETITION NO.614 OF 2017

Iqbal Hussain Bhati …Petitioner
V/s.
SMC Global Securities Ltd. & Anr. …Respondents

WITH
ARBITRATION PETITION NO.624 OF 2017

Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited …Petitioner
V/s.
Trimax IT Infrastructure & Services Limited …Respondent

WITH
ARBITRATION PETITION NO.655 OF 2017

Reshma Rejendra Desai & Anr. …Petitioners
V/s.
L And T Finance Limited …Respondent

Mr.Shyam Mehta, Senior Counsel with Mr.Hitesh Mutha, Mr.Sumit
Raghani, Ms.Dimple Majithia, Ms.Dipika Bhateja i/b Agrud Partners
for the Petitioner in CARBP No.434 of 2017.

Mr.Sagar Kasar, with Mr.Amol Wagh and Ms.Sheha Sanap for the
Petitioner in ARBP No.159 of 2017.

Ms.Sapna Rachure i/b T.N. Tripathi & Co. for the Petitioner in ARBP
No.976 of 2016.

Mr.A.S. Daver with Mr.Anuj Jaiswal, Mr.Nirav Shah, i/b Little & Co. for
the Petitioner in CARBP No.173 of 2017.
Mr.Pawan Pandey i/b Clayderman & Co. for the Petitioner in ARBP
Nos.230 of 2017 and 232 of 2017.

Mr.Sanjay Jain with Mr.Aniketh Nair and Ms.Apoorva Gupta i/b
Mr.Mustafa Motiwala for the Petitioner in CARBP No.236 of 2017.

Mr.C.N. Chavan for the Petitioner in ARBP No.399 of 2017.

Mr.Prakash Shah with Mr.Santosh Mungekar, Mr.Rohin Shah for the
Petitioner in ARBP No.448 of 2017 and the Respondent No.1 in
ARBP No.614 of 2017.

Mr.Simil Purohit i/b M/s Purohit & Co. for the Petitioner in ARBP
No.484 of 2017.
Mr.Iqbal Hussain Bhati – Petitioner Present in Person in ARBP
No.614 of 2017.
Mr.Shriram Kulkarni with Mr.Sachin Chavan, Ms.Megna Pujari and
Ms.Madhu Deshmukh for the Petitioner in ARBP No.624 of 2017.

Mr.Paras Vira i/b Mr.Anand Kate for the Petitioner in ARBP No. 655
of 2017.

Ms.Lopa Munim with Mr.Sanish Mathew i/b Rajesh Kothari & Co. for
the Respondent in CARBP No.434 of 2017.

Mr.T.J. Pandian for the Respondent in ARBP No.159 of 2017 and the
Petitioner in ARBP No.413 of 2017.

Mr.Bhupesh Samant for the Respondent No.1 in ARBP No.976 of
2016.

Ms.Sumi Soman i/b Mr.Priyanka Pawar for the Respondent in
CARBP No.173 of 2017.

Mr.Anand Poojary with Ms.S.I. Joshi and Ms.Nikita Pawar, Ms.Jalpa
i/b S.I. Joshi & Co. for the Respondent in ARBP Nos.230 of 2017, 232
of 2017 and 655 of 2017.

Mr.Girish Agarwal for the Respondent in ARBP No.413 of 2017.

Mr.Anil Balani for the Respondent in ARBP No.484 of 2017.

Mr.Ashish Kamat with Mr.S. Banerjee i/b Mr.Rajesh Gaikwad for the
Respondent in ARBP No.624 of 2017.

Mr.Pankaj Savant, Senior Advocate, a/w. Mr.Sandeep Aole, Mr.Saket
More,Mr.Subit Chakrabarti, Mr.Vishesh Kalra, Ms.Neha Joshi,
i/b.Vidhi Partners for the Respondent in CARBP No.236 of 2017.

CORAM : R.D. DHANUKA, J.

RESERVED ON : 25TH JANUARY, 2018 PRONOUNCED ON : 21ST FEBRUARY, 2018 ORDER :-

1. The respondents in all these petitions have raised a preliminary issue of maintainability of these petitions on the ground that no notice under section 34 (5) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 has been issued by the petitioners to the respondents before filing these arbitration petitions and thus the petitions are liable to be dismissed on that ground itself. In view of this preliminary objection raised by the respondents, learned counsel appearing for the parties have addressed this Court on this issue at this stage at great length, which is being considered by this Court by passing a common order in the aforesaid matters.

2. The questions that arise for consideration of this Court are :-

i). If the notice invoking arbitration agreement is issued prior to 23rd October, 2015, whereas the impugned award is rendered after 23rd October, 2015 and if the arbitration agreement contemplate that the parties would be governed not only by the provisions of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996, but also any statutory modification thereof or repeal thereto, the carbp434-17 provisions inserted by the Arbitration & Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 would apply to such proceedings filed after 23rd October, 2015 or not ?

ii). If there was no agreement between the parties that that the parties would be governed by not only the provisions of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 but also any statutory amendment thereto or repeal thereto and the notice was issued prior to 23rd October, 2015 but the arbitral award is rendered after 23rd October, 2015, whether provisions of the Arbitration & Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 would apply to such arbitral proceedings commenced prior to 23rd October, 2015 ?

iii). If the arbitral notice was issued prior to 23rd October, 2015 and the the arbital award was rendered prior to 23rd October, 2015 however the arbitration petition is filed after 23rd October, 2015 whether the provisions of the Arbitration & Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 would apply to such pending petitions ?

iv) Even if the parties would be governed by the
provisions of the Arbitration & Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 depending upon the facts and circumstances of each case, whether issuance of prior notice under section 34(5) by the petitioner upon the respondent before filing the arbitration petition under section 34 is mandatory or directory carbp434-17 and the consequence, if any, for non-compliance of such prior notice ?

3. The petitioner in Commercial Arbitration Petition No.434 of 2017 began the arguments on these issue first and thus the facts in the said arbitration petition which are relevant for the purpose of deciding these preliminary issues raised by the respondents are summarized in this order.

4. The respondents had invited the bids for setting up flying schools at 11 airports all over India including two at Surat Airport. The final bid of the petitioner was accepted by the respondents. The petitioner accepted all the terms and conditions of the allotment letter sent by the respondents. The respondents issued a modification by a letter of allotment to the petitioner on 28 th March, 2008. The petitioner accepted the terms and conditions of the letter of allotment as well as modification thereto on 4th April, 2008. The dispute arose between the parties.

5. On 28th February, 2011, the petitioner issued a notice invoking arbitration agreement to the respondents to settle the claims between the parties. The petitioner sent a reminder to the respondents on 7th April, 2011 and once again called upon to appoint a sole arbitrator. On 5th January, 2012, the respondents issued a notice of termination of agreement. The petitioner filed an application under section 11 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 for seeking an appointment of a sole arbitrator. On 4 th December, 2012, the learned designate of the Hon’ble Chief Justice of this Court disposed of the said Arbitration Application No.67 of 2012 and carbp434-17 referred the disputes between the parties by appointing a sole arbitrator. On 12th April, 2017, the learned arbitrator rendered an award thereby rejecting the claims made by the petitioner and partly allowing the counter claim made by the respondent. Being aggrieved by the said award, the petitioner herein lodged this arbitration petition under section 34 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 on 11 th July, 2017 which was taken on file on 21st August, 2017.

6. Sections 34 (5) and 34(6) were inserted by the Arbitration & Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 dated 31st December, 2015 with effect from 23rd October, 2015 (for short the said “Amendment Act”) which read thus :-

“(5) An application under this section shall be filed by a party only after issuing a prior notice to the other party and such application shall be accompanied by an affidavit by the applicant endorsing compliance with the said requirement.

(6) An application under this section shall be disposed of expeditiously, and in any event, within a period of one year from the date on which the notice referred to in sub-section (5) is served upon the other party.”

7. Learned counsel for the respondents raised a preliminary objection that since the petitioners had not issued prior notice to the respondents of filing this application under section 34 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996, this application could not have been filed by the petitioner before issuance of such prior notice and thus the arbitration petition under section 34 is not maintainable and deserves to be dismissed on that ground alone. It is also urged by the respondents in their brief preliminary objection raised at the threshold carbp434-17 that the said provision is mandatory and not directory. In view of this preliminary objection raised by the respondents through their respective counsel, I have heard the learned counsel for the parties on these preliminary objections.

8. Mr.Mehta, learned senior counsel for the petitioner in Commercial Arbitration Petition No.434 of 2017 submits that the notice invoking arbitration agreement was admittedly issued by the petitioner on 28th February, 2011, which was immediately received by the respondent. The respondent did not agree to the appointment of any arbitrator. The petitioner had thus filed an arbitration application under section 11(6) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 before this Court in the year 2012. He submits that the then designate of the Hon’ble Chief Justice by an order dated 4 th December, 2012 had appointed a former Judge of this Court as a sole arbitrator and referred the disputes between the parties to the arbitration of the learned arbitrator. He submits that in view of the petitioner invoking arbitration agreement as far back as on 28 th February, 2011, the arbitral proceedings had already commenced upon receipt of the said notice invoking arbitration agreement by the respondent which was much prior to insertion of section 34(5) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 in section 34 which was inserted with effect from 23rd October, 2015.

9. It is submitted by the learned senior counsel that merely because the arbitral award came to be rendered on 12th April, 2017 i.e. after the said provision of section 34(5) was inserted in section 34, the said provision under section 34(5) cannot be made applicable to the arbitral proceedings which had commenced prior to 23 rd carbp434-17 October, 2015. He submits that merely because this arbitration petition was filed after the said provision of section 34(5) was inserted, the said provision cannot be made applicable to the arbitration application filed under section 34 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996. The Court has to consider whether the arbitral proceedings had already commenced prior to 23rd October, 2015 or not and not as to when the arbitration petition under section 34 was filed by the petitioner challenging an award arising out of such arbitral proceedings which had commenced prior to 23rd October, 2015.

10. Learned senior counsel placed reliance on section 26 of the Arbitration & Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 which reads thus :-

“26. Act not to apply to pending arbitral proceedings. – Nothing contained in this Act shall apply to the arbitral proceedings commenced, in accordance with the provisions of section 21 of the principal Act, before the commencement of this Act unless the parties otherwise agree but this Act shall apply in relation to arbitral proceedings commenced on or after the date of commencement of this Act.”

Section 85 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 reads thus :-

“85. Repeal and saving :-

(1) The Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937 (6 of 1937), the Arbitration Act, 1940 (10 of 1940) and the Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961 (45 of 1961) are hereby repealed.

(2) Notwithstanding such repeal, –

carbp434-17

(a) the provisions of the said enactments shall

apply in relation to arbitral proceedings which commenced before this Act came into force unless otherwise agreed by the parties but this Act shall apply in relation to arbitral proceedings which commenced on or after this Act comes into force;

(b) all rules made and notifications published, under the said enactments shall, to the extent to which they are not repugnant to this Act, be deemed respectively to have been made or issued under this Act.”

11. Learned senior counsel placed reliance on clause 20 of the agreement entered into between the parties which recorded the arbitration agreement, which is extracted as under :-

“20. All disputes and differences arising out of or in any way touching or concerning this Agreement (except those the decision whereof is otherwise herein before expressly provided for or to which the Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorized Occupants) Act, 1971 and the rules framed thereunder which are now in force or which may hereafter come into forces are applicable shall be referred to the sole arbitration of a person to be appointed by the chairman of the Authority on in case the designation of Chairman is changed or his office is abolished by the person for the time being entrusted, whether or not in addition to other functions with the functions of the Chairman. Airports Authority of India, by whatever designation such person may be called and if the arbitrator so appointed and willing to act, to sole arbitration of some other person to be similarly appointed and willing to carbp434-17 act as such arbitrator. It will be no objection to any such appointment that the arbitrator so appointed is a servant of the Authority and that he had to deal with the matters to which this Agreement relates and that in the course of his duties as such servant of Authority he had expressed views on all or any of the matters in dispute or difference. The award of the arbitrator so appointed shall be final and binding on the parties. The Arbitrator may with the consent of the parties extend from time to time then time for making the publishing the award.”

12. Learned senior counsel placed reliance on the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Thyssen Stahlunion GMBH vs. Steel Authority of India Limited, (1999) 9 SCC 334 and in particular paragraphs 2, 4, 5, 7, 12, 13, 22, 23, 25, 27, 28, 30, 32 and 33. He also placed reliance on the judgment of this Court in case of The Board of Trustees of the Port of Mumbai vs. M/s.Afcons Infrastructure Limited, (2016) SCC OnLine Bom. 10037 and in particular paragraph 289. He submits that since in the arbitration agreement recorded in clause 20 of the License Agreement dated 6th June, 2008, the parties had not agreed that the parties will be also bound by the provisions of any statutory amendment to the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 or any repeal thereto section 34(5) of the Amendment Act, which is brought into effect with effect from 23 rd October, 2015 cannot apply to the arbitral proceedings commenced prior to 23rd October, 2015.

13. Learned senior counsel for the petitioner also placed reliance on the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Milkfood Limited vs. GMC Ice Cream (P) Limited, (2004) 7 SCC 288 and in particular paragraphs, 2, 8, 9, 10, 22, 47, 50, 51, 54, 57 and 90 to buttress his argument that the arbitral proceedings had commenced carbp434-17 in view of the notice issued under section 21 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996. He submits that in the said judgment, the Supreme Court had considered the issue as to whether the provisions of the Arbitration Act, 1940 shall apply or the provisions of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 would apply to the pending arbitral proceedings.

14. Mr.Mehta, also invited my attention to the judgment delivered by a learned single Judge of this Court in case of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World vs. The Board of Control for Cricket in India, (2016) SCC OnLine 6064 and in particular paragraphs 10, 11, 12, 17 and 20 to 23. He submits that the second part of section 26 of the Amendment Act does not provide that it would apply to the arbitral proceedings commenced earlier and prior to the amendment having brought into force. He submits that since the rights had been accrued in favour of the petitioner under the unamended provisions of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996, the same cannot be taken away impliedly or explicitly by virtue of insertion of section 34(5) by the Amendment Act with effect from 23rd October, 2015. He submits that the arbitration proceedings in Court cannot be considered as continuation of the arbitral proceedings before the learned arbitrator.

15. It is submitted that in the judgment of this Court in case of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra), learned single Judge has interpreted section 36 of the Amendment Act and not the rights of the parties under sections 34 and 37 of the Act. He submits that in any event the said judgment was not dealing with section 34 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 which section is invoked by the carbp434-17 petitioner for challenging the impugned award. In support of this submission, learned senior counsel invited my attention to paragraphs 46, 49, 52, 53, 56 to 58, 62, 65, 66, 67 and 78 of the said judgment in case of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra) and would submit that paragraphs 22(5) and 32 of the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Thyssen Stahlunion GMBH (supra) have not been considered by the learned single Judge of this Court in the said judgment of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra).

16. Mr.Mehta, learned senior counsel also invited my attention to the judgment delivered by the learned single Judge of this Court in case of Enercon GmbH vs. Yogesh Mehra & Ors., 2017 SCC OnLine Bom. 1744 and in particular paragraphs 29, 36 and 45. He submits that in that case the arbitration petition was filed admittedly under section 34 after 23rd October, 2015 and thus that judgment would not assist the case of the respondent and is clearly distinguishable in the facts of this case.

17. Learned senior counsel placed reliance on the judgment delivered by the Delhi High Court in case of Ardee Infrastructure Private Limited vs. Ms.Anuradha Bhatia, (2017), SCC OnLine Del.6402 and in particular paragraphs 24 to 33 and would submit that the Delhi High Court had taken a different view than the view taken by the Calcutta High Court. Learned single Judge of this Court in case of Enercon GmbH vs. Yogesh Mehra & Ors. (supra) did not agree with the views expressed by the Delhi High Court in the said judgment in case of Ardee Infrastructure Private Limited (supra). Learned senior counsel placed reliance on the judgment of the Delhi High Curt in case of Ministry of Defence, Government of India. vs. carbp434-17 Cenrex Sp.Z.O.O. & Ors., (2015) SCC OnLine Del. 13944 and would submit that in the said matter, the arbitration petition was already filed before 23rd October, 2015. Reliance was placed on paragraph 25 of the said judgment. Learned senior counsel distinguished the judgment in case of Duro Felguera, S.A. vs. Gangavaram Port Ltd., (2017) 9 SCC 729 on the ground that in that matter the proceedings had commenced after 23rd October, 2015.

18. In his alternate submission, it is submitted by the learned senior counsel that section 34(5) and 34(6) have to be read together. He submits that the purpose and intent of the legislation in inserting section 34(5) and (6) in section 34 by virtue of the provisions of the Amendment Act was that the proceedings filed under section 34 shall be heard expeditiously. He submits that the period of one year is contemplated for the disposal of the application under section 34 from the date of service of notice under the provisions of section 34(5). He submits that section 34(5) refers to issuance of notice and does not provide the mode and manner of service of notice. Whether a copy of the arbitration petition is also required to be served upon the respondent or not is also not provided in the said provision. He submits that the said provisions also do not provide for any consequences in case of any default for not issuing the notice under section 34(5) before filing of the arbitration petition or if the arbitration petition is not disposed of within one year from the date of service of the notice under section 34(5).

19. Learned senior counsel placed reliance on the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Vidyawati Gupta & Ors. vs. Bhakti Hari Nayak & Ors., (2006) 2 SCC 777 and in particular paragraphs carbp434-17 16, 22, 49, 51 and 52. He also placed reliance on the Bombay High Court (Original Side) Rules and more particularly Rule 803-B and would submit that the said provision also provides for issuance of a notice to the respondent before admitting the petition to obviate the delay on account of the Court notice.

20. Learned senior counsel placed reliance on the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Kailash vs. Nanhku & Ors. (2005) 4 SCC 480 and in particular paragraphs 41 and 42. He also placed reliance on the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Topline Shoes Limited vs. Corporation Bank, (2002) 6 SCC 33 and in particular paragraphs 5, 8 and 11 in support of his submission that the provisions under section 34(5) cannot be construed as mandatory but has to be considered as directory. He submits that no specific right is created in favour of the respondent even if no prior notice before filing of the arbitration petition under section 34 is issued to the respondent. The said provision is not a penal provision. It is submitted that the rules framed by this Court and more particularly Rule 803-B substantially protects the interest of the respondent.

21. Learned senior counsel placed reliance on the judgment of the Madras High Court in case of M/s.Jumbo Bags Limited vs. The New India Assurance Co. Ltd., (2016) 2 LW 769 and in particular paragraph 20. He submits that in the said judgment, the Madras High Court has considered the amended section 11(6-A) of the Amendment Act and had held that section 26 makes it quite clear that unless the parties agree, the provisions of the principal Act would continue to apply and those provisions would be applicable only to carbp434-17 the arbitral proceedings commenced on or after 23rd October, 2015.

22. Learned senior counsel placed reliance on the judgment of the Kerala High Court in case of Shamsudeen vs. Shreeram Transport Finance Co. Ltd. & Ors., 2017 (2) KLJ 24 and in particular paragraph 8 in which it has been held that if the parties do not agree otherwise, if the arbitration proceedings had already commenced before 23rd October, 2015, section 34(5) of the Amendment Act has no application to such a situation and thus such requirement prescribed under section 34(5) would not be complied with by the petitioner.

23. Mr.Shyam Mehta, learned senior counsel for the petitioner in Arbitration Petition No.434 of 2017 distinguished the judgment of Patna High Court in case of Bihar Rajya Bhumi Vikas Bank Samiti Bihar vs. State of Bihar & Others, delivered on 28th October, 2016 in Letters Patent Appeal NO.1841 of 2016 on the ground that the Patna High Court has not considered that no consequences/effect of non-compliance of the procedure prescribed under section 34(5) is considered by the Patna High Court in the said judgment. He also invited my attention to paragraphs 57, 59, 78 and 82 of the said judgment.

24. Mr.Sanjay Jain, learned counsel appearing in the Commercial Arbitration Petition No.236 of 2017 adopts the submissions of Mr.Mehta in Commercial Arbitration Petition No.434 of 2017 and made various additional submissions on the preliminary issues.

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25. Learned counsel invited my attention to the report of the Law Commission of India dated 5th August, 2014 suggesting various amendments to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and more particularly the Note in respect of section 34(5) which provides that the said provision has been included to streamline the process and to cut-short the long delays which accrued due to issue of Court notice. He submits that the interpretation of a provision has to be done to achieve the object of the enactment i.e. to avoid delays involved in the service of notice by the Court. The object is not to prevent the petition being filed. The interpretation has to be textual as well as contextual i.e. purposive interpretation.

26. Section 34(5) does not prescribe the nature of the notice or the contents of the notice and the said provision is vague. He also placed reliance on section 34(6) which was also inserted by the said Amendment Act and would submit that if the provision of section 34(5) is read with section 34(6), a party could issue and serve a notice on the 1st day of service of the award and file a petition under section 34 on the 120th day. In such a situation, the period available to the Court to dispose of the section 34 petition would be only 8 months which could not have been an intention of the legislature.

27. It is submitted by the learned counsel that section 34(5) of the Act does not provide for any consequences of non compliance and leaves the consequences of non compliance to the discretion of the Court. He submits that the Arbitration and Conciliation At, 1996 contains several provisions which provides consequences of non compliance thereof. There are several other provisions where no consequences are provided for non compliance thereof. He submits carbp434-17 that the legislature thus where it wanted certain consequences to follow has prescribed such consequences in case of non compliance of such provisions. The intention of the legislature in not providing for any consequences is deliberate such that the equity jurisdiction of the Court or the discretion of the Court is not affected or curtailed in any manner. This omission to provide consequences has also to be seen in the light of the object to be achieved which is to ensure that the respondent immediately gets notice of filing of the petition or the intended filing of the petition and save him from expenses of prosecuting remedies as if a challenge under section 34 has not been laid.

28. It is submitted by the learned counsel that the right to challenge an award is a vested right. It vests on the date of commencement of arbitral proceedings in accordance with section 21 of the Act. He invited my attention to the judgment of this Court in case of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World vs. Board of Control for Cricket in India dated 8th August, 2016 in Chamber Summons No.1530 of 2015 and more particularly paragraphs 50 and 53. He submits that the rights of the petitioner as prevailing on the date of commencement of arbitral proceedings in the present case was prior to 23rd October,2015. Such right did not have any such pre- conditions. An impediment now created by section 34(5) cannot affect the vested right. Though processual in nature, an impediment which affects a vested right, has to be treated as prospective and cannot be given a retrospective effect. He placed reliance on section 6 of the General Clauses Act and would submit that the said provision clearly protects rights already vested and accrued in favour of any party which cannot be taken away by any amendment or a repeal carbp434-17 unless it is so provided in such amendment.

29. It is submitted by the learned counsel that the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is a completed code qua arbitral proceedings. The Act clarifies that the arbitral tribunal shall not be bound by the provisions of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 or the Evidence Act, 1872. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is however applicable to the proceedings under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 in Court. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 gives ample powers to the Court to dispense with the requirement of notice or to waive the same in appropriate matters under section 151 or to extend the time to issue the notice under section 148. The Arbitration Act recognizes party autonomy.

30. It is submitted by the learned counsel that section 26 of the Amendment Act permits parties to agree “otherwise”. The respondent by not objecting and by not issuing a notice under section 34(5) has agreed otherwise. The petitioner has served the notice along with copy of the arbitration petition upon the respondent on 18th April, 2017 and has complied with or in any event substantially complied with the requirement under section 34(5) of the Arbitration Act. It is submitted by the learned counsel that the respondent can also waive a notice as required under section 34(5). Section 4 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, which provides for a waiver are applicable to the facts of this case. He submits that the respondent did not object to the filing of the petition for want of prior notice under section 34(5) when the petitioner had applied for condonation of delay by filing a notice of motion and when the same was argued by the petitioner.

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31. It is submitted that the petitioner in this case has also filed a notice of motion inter-alia praying for a declaration that the petitioner has complied with section 34(5) of the Arbitration Act. No affidavit in reply is filed by the respondent to the said notice of motion till date. He submits that the respondent has also filed an arbitration petition without issuing any notice under section 34(5) of the Arbitration Act to the petitioner.

32. Learned counsel for the petitioner invited my attention to section 34(6) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and would submit that there is no consequence provided in the said provision also, if the application challenging an impugned award under section 34 is not disposed of within a period of one year from the date of effecting service of the notice referred in section 34(5). He also placed reliance on section 11(13) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and would submit that even the said provision contemplates disposal of proceedings under section 11(6) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 within 60 days from the date of service of notice on the opposite party. He submits that the said provision also does not provide for any consequence if the said application is not disposed of within 60 days from the date of service of the notice on the other side.

33. Learned counsel for the petitioner also placed reliance on sections 8(1), 16(2), 25(a) and 34(3) and would submit that those provisions clearly provides for consequences of not complying with those provisions which consequences are absent in section 34(5) and 34(6) in those newly added provisions. Learned counsel appearing for the petitioner placed reliance on following judgments :-

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a). Judgment of this Court in case of Ashraf Ahmed vs. The Municipal Corporation of Greater Bombay in First Appeal No.292 of 1999,

b). Judgment of this Court in case of Macquire Bank Ltd. vs. Shilpi Cable Technologies Ltd. In Civil Appeal No.15135 of 2017,

c). Judgment of Supreme Court in case of Kailash vs. Nanhku & Ors. (2005) 4 SCC 480,

d). Central Bank of India vs. Femme Pharma Ltd. & Ors., AIR 1982 Bom. 67,

e). Thirumalai Chemicals Ltd. vs. Union of India & Ors., 2011 6 SCC 739,

f). M/s.Babbar Sewing Machine Company vs. Trilok Nath Mahajan (1978) 4 SCC 188,

g). State of Goa vs. Western Builders, (2006) 6 SCC 239,

h). Raptakos Brett And Co. Ltd. vs. Ganesh Property, AIR 1998 SC 3085, and

i). Rohanlal Kuthalia & Ors. vs. R.B.Mohan Singh Oberoi, (1975) 4 SCC 628.

34. Learned counsel submits that if the consequence is not carbp434-17 provided for compliance of any particular provision, such provision has to be construed as directory and not mandatory. Such provision can be also waived. He also placed reliance on the Bombay High Court (Original Side) Rules and more particularly Rule 227 providing for six months time for issuance of notice by the Court in arbitration matters. He also placed reliance on section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and section 527 of the Mumbai Municipal Corporation Act, 1882.

35. It is submitted by the learned counsel that section 34(5) only refers to issuance of prior notice and does not contemplate filing of the arbitration application impugning an arbitral award after service of the notice to the other party whereas section 34(6) contemplates period of disposal of arbitration application within one year from the date of service of notice upon other party. He submits that in view of such conflicting provision, the Court can compute disposal of the arbitration application from the date of filing petition or from the date of issuance of the Court notice. He submits that thus the notice contemplated under section 34(5) has to be considered as directory and cannot be considered as mandatory.

36. Mr.Jain, learned counsel for the petitioner submits that section 26 of the Amendment Act does not apply to the pending arbitral proceedings as on 23rd October, 2015. He led emphasis on the words “nothing contained in this Act shall apply to the arbitral proceedings commenced in accordance with the provisions of section 21 of the Principal Act before commencement of this Act”. He submits that the phrases ” commenced” and “arbitral proceedings” used in the said section 26 are only to identify the beginning point of the carbp434-17 proceedings to which the amendment will not apply. The commencement of proceedings is identified as it is well settled principle of law that when the proceedings are to be governed and decided in accordance with law prevalent on the date of institution of the proceedings. He submits that the beginning point “commencement of the arbitral proceedings” is equated to the institution of the proceedings in Court.

37. It is submitted that the phrase “date of commencement of the arbitral proceedings” is a legal fiction and on the date of commencement there are in fact no arbitral proceedings instituted. A request for reference of disputes to arbitration is the date of commencement of the arbitral proceedings. It is submitted that the phrase “arbitral proceedings” is not a stand alone phrase but it is in conjunction with the words “commenced in accordance with section 21”. Arbitral proceedings commences on such notice, irrespective of whether the reference is ultimately made to the arbitral tribunal or not. It only seeks to identify the date of commencement and not the nature of the proceedings to which it applies. It sets a time line i.e. starting line. He submitted that the amended provisions inserted by the said Amendment Act thus would apply to those arbitral proceedings where a notice under section 21 is issued after 23 rd October, 2015.

38. Learned counsel refers to the phrase “arbitral proceedings” in various provisions of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 and more particularly in sections 9, 13, 16, 17, 21, 22, 27, 29, 29-A, 30, 31, 31-A, 32, 34, 38 and 77. He submits that the intention of the legislature is thus clear that if the notice invoking arbitration carbp434-17 agreement is issued prior to 23rd October, 2015, then all such matters would be governed by the provisions under the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 and not by the provisions of the Amendment Act.

39. It is submitted that even in those cases where the notice invoking the arbitration agreement is issued after 23 rd October, 2015 and the arbitral proceedings have commenced after that date, insofar as the provisions under section 34(5) and 34(6) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 inserted by the Amendment Act is concerned, the same being directory and not mandatory, all such arbitration petitions filed without issuing such notice prior to the date of filing of the arbitration petition cannot be dismissed on that ground. It is submitted that section 26 of the Amendment Act does not refer to two different sets of the arbitral proceedings i.e. (i) before the arbitral tribunal and another before the Court.

40. Mr.S.S. Kulkarni, learned counsel appearing for the petitioner in Arbitration Petition No.624 of 2017 placed reliance on the Law Commission Report and would submit that the said report also does not state whether the provisions of section 34(5) and 34(6) are mandatory or directory though has described some of the other provisions as mandatory. He placed reliance on section 34(2) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 and would submit that the powers of the Court under such provision is not circumscribed by the provision under section 34(5) and are not subject to such provisions. Section 34(5) cannot be read in isolation but has to be read in that context. Section 34(1) confers substantive right on a party to challenge an arbitral award. Section 34(5) provides merely for a carbp434-17 notice which is by way of an intimation. No format of any such notice is contemplated under the said provision. Even if an oral intimation is issued to the other side, that may be sufficient. He submits that section 34(5) is procedural in nature and thus the petitioner can always amend the grounds before the petition is filed. The petitioner is not required to serve any proceedings along with notice. Section 34(5) is totally silent about the mode and manner of effecting the service of notice.

41. Learned counsel then placed reliance on section 34 (6) and would submit that even if an arbitration petition filed under section 34 is not decided within one year from the date of service of notice under section 34(5) of the Act, the Court does not cease to loose powers to decide such petitions and does not become functus officio. The Court has to make an endeavor to decide such arbitration petition within one year from the date of service of notice under section 34(5) and thus such provisions have to be construed as directory and not mandatory. Learned counsel placed reliance on the dictionary meaning of the term “notice prescribed in Law of Lexicon. He also placed reliance on section 12(2) of the Bombay Rent Control Act, 1947 and submits that the Courts have construed the said provision as mandatory after considering the wordings and the legislative intent for providing such provision. He submits that section 34(5) cannot be compared with section 12(2) of the Rent Act. The said powers under section 34(5) does not fatter upon the powers under sections 34(1) and 34(2) of the Act. Learned counsel cited the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Kailash vs. Nanhku & Ors. (2005) 4 SCC 480 and in particular paragraphs 23 to 28. It is submitted that even if a notice under section 34(5) is not issued prior carbp434-17 to the date of filing of the arbitration petition, substantive remedy of the aggrieved party cannot be taken away under section 34(1).

42. Learned counsel for the petitioner placed reliance on the judgment of the Supreme Court in case Parasramka Commercial Company vs. Union of India, 1969 (2) SCC 694 and in particular paragraph 5 in support of his submissions that even if a notice is issued by the petitioner to the respondent post filing of the petition, it would amount to substantial compliance of provisions of section 34(5) and the purpose of such notice would be served.

43. Mr.Pujari, learned counsel appearing for the respondent in Arbitration Petition No.238 of 2017 placed reliance on the unreported judgment delivered on 25th October,2013 in First Appeal No.302 of 2013 in which this Court had considered section 164 of the Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Act in support of the submission that since prior notice before filing arbitration petition was not issued by the petitioner in the said Arbitration Petition No.238 of 2017, the petition is not maintainable and deserves to be dismissed on that ground alone. He submits that the said provision under section 34(5) is mandatory and not directory. He also placed reliance on the judgment of this Court reported in 76 Company Cases 244 (Bom.) in support of this submission.

44. Ms.Munim, learned counsel appearing for the respondent in Commercial Arbitration Petition No.434 of 2017 on the other hand submits that by virtue of insertion of section 34(5) and 34(6) of the Amendment Act, the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 is not repealed. The Ordinance did not contain any saving provision. The carbp434-17 arbitration ordinance was converted into the Amendment Act with insertion of section 26 as a saving section.

45. It is submitted that there is no period prescribed under section 34(5) for issuance of prior notice before filing an arbitration petition challenging the award. The legislative intent of issuance of such prior notice is for expeditious disposal of the arbitration proceedings. She submits that if section 34(5) and 34(6) are construed by this Court as directory and not mandatory, the whole purpose and legislative intent of expeditious disposal of the arbitration proceedings would be frustruted. It is submitted that the provisions of section 3(5) and 34(6) cannot be read in isolation but have to be read with section 34(1) and section 34 (2). Section 34(5) cannot be made otiose by declaring it as directory. The notice period is not required to be excluded by computing the period of limitation under section 34(3).

46. Learned counsel invited my attention to the averments in the Commercial Arbitration Petition No.434 of 2017 and would submit that the notice invoking arbitration agreement was issued by the other party on 20th February, 2011. The award was rendered by the learned arbitrator on 12th April, 2017. On 5th June, 2017, the learned arbitrator passed an order under section 33 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996. The arbitration petition was filed on 11 th July, 2017. She submits that admittedly the arbitral award is rendered after 23 rd October, 2015 and the arbitration petition also came to be filed after 23rd October, 2015. She strongly placed reliance on the judgment of this Court in case of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra) and in particular paragraphs 10, 11, 21, 25 to 28, 33, 34, 52, 53, 57, 58 and 78 and also in case of Enercon GmbH (supra) and in particular carbp434-17 paragraphs 24, 28, 32, 38, 40 and 44 in support of her submission that though the notice invoking arbitration agreement was given prior to 23rd October, 2015 and the award was rendered after that date, all the arbitration petitions challenging such award would be governed by section 34(5) and 34(6) to be read with section 34(1) and those provisions thus will have to be complied with. She submits that there are two sets of arbitral proceedings contemplated under section 26 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 i.e. one before the arbitral tribunal and another in Court post award.

47. Learned counsel placed reliance on the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Thyssen Stahlunion GMBH (supra) and submits that the phrase “in relation to the arbitral proceedings” cannot be given a narrow meaning to mean only the pendency of the arbitration proceedings before the learned arbitrator but would also cover the proceedings before the Court. She submits that saving section thus becomes exhaustive and takes within fold two different types of proceedings arising out of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996. Section 6 of the General Clauses Act becomes applicable. She submits that by all necessary implication, the amendments introduced by the Amendment Act will apply to the proceedings other than the arbitral proceedings even though the said proceedings may have commenced prior to 23rd October, 2015. She submits that this Court has already held in the said judgment in M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra) that the object of the amendment to section 26 can be fulfilled only by holding the saving section 26 exhaustive. It is submitted by the learned counsel that this Court in case of Enercon GmbH (supra) has also dealt with the effect of section 26 of the Amendment Act.

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48. It is submitted that in view of the fact that the arbitration petition has been filed after Amendment Act came into force and in view of the fact that the saving clause 26 does not save post arbitral proceedings under section 34 from the application of the Amendment Act, the mandatory provisions of section 34(5) will be applicable to this matter and the petitioner not having complied with this mandatory requirement, the arbitration petition deserves to be dismissed, as not maintainable. She submits that issuance of a notice is a sine qua non before filing of a challenge petition. It is submitted that section 34(1) clearly provides that a recourse to Court against an arbitral award may be made only by an application for setting aside such an award in accordance with sub-sections 2, 3 and 5. A petition which is not in compliance of the requirement of section 34 is not valid and is not maintainable. She led emphasis on the word “shall” used in section 34(5) and would submit that the said word would clearly indicate that the petition itself could be filed only after compliance of the mandatory notice and not otherwise.

49. Learned counsel placed reliance on the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Union of India & Ors. vs. A.K. Pandey holding that it is the duty of the Courts of justice to try to get the real intention of the legislature by considering the whole scope of the statutes. She placed reliance on the words “an application under section 34(1) shall be disposed in any event within a period of one year from the date of such notice referred to in sub-section 5 is served”. She submits that the word “only” is an exclusive word and indicates the legislative intent that the section is mandatory. She placed reliance on section 25 of the Law Commission Report in carbp434-17 support of this submission.

50. Learned counsel placed reliance on section 11(13) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 and would submit that in the said provision, a mandate is provided that the High Court or the Supreme Court as the case may be shall decide an application as expeditiously as possible and an endeavor shall be made to dispose of the matter within a period of 60 days from the date of service of the notice on the opposite parties. The words “in any event” are not used in the said provision, whereas such words are used in section 34(6) of the Amendment Act. She submits that the effect of section 34(5) is clearly to impose a bar against the institution of the application under section 34(1) and the same is the only legislative purpose and intent to dispose of the challenge applications within a period of one year from issuance of the notice impugning an award.

51. Learned counsel for the respondent placed reliance on the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Sharif-ud-Din vs. Abdul Gani Lone, AIR 1980 SC 303 and would submit that in the said judgment, it is held by the Supreme Court that whenever a statute prescribes that a particular act is to be done in a particular manner and also lays does failure to comply with the said requirement, leads to specific consequence and it would be difficult to hold that the requirement is not mandatory. She also placed reliance on the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Union of India vs. Popular Construction Company, (2001) 8 SCC 470 and in particular paragraph 12. She also placed reliance on the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Bihari Chowdhary & Anr. vs. State of Bihar & Ors., (1984) 2 SCC 627 and would submit that since the carbp434-17 language used in section 34(5) is clear and unambiguous, it is the duty of the Court to give effect to such legislative intent and has to construe such provisions strictly.

52. Learned counsel also placed reliance on the following judgments :-

i). The judgment delivered by the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal, New Delhi in case of Seema Gupta vs. Supreme Infrastructure India Ltd. & Ors. in Company Appeals (AT) (Insolvency) No.53 of 2017,

ii). The judgment delivered by the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal in case of Era Infra Engineering Limited vs. Prideco Commercial Projects Pvt. Ltd. in Company Appeals (AT) (Insolvency) No.31 of 2017,

iii). The judgment of the Supreme Court in case of State of Kerala vs. M.S. Mani & Ors. in Contempt Petition (Civil) No.280 of 1999,

iv). The judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Yogendra Pratap Singh vs. Savitri Pandey & Anr. in Criminal Appeal No.605 of 2012 and another connected matters,

v). The judgment of the Supreme Court in case of M/s.Shreeram Finance Corporation vs. Yasin Khan & Ors., AIR 1989 SC 1769, carbp434-17

vi). The judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Sharif-ud- Din vs. Abdul Gani Lone, AIR 1980 SC 303,

vii). The judgment of the Supreme Court in case of M/s. Raptakos Brett & Co. Ltd. vs. Ganesh Property, AIR 1998 SC 3085,

viii). The judgment delivered by the Division Bench of the Patna High Court delivered on 28th October, 2016 in Letters Patent Appeal No.1841 of 2016 in case of Bihar Rajya Bhumi Vikas Bank Samiti, Bihar – Jharkhand vs. The State of Bihar & Ors.

53. Learned counsel for the respondent makes an attempt to distinguish the judgment of this Court in case of The Board of Trustees of the Port of Mumbai (supra) on the ground that the said judgment is in conflict with the judgment of this Court in case of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra) and Enercon GmbH (supra). Learned counsel distinguished the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Thyssen Stahlunion GMBH (supra) on the ground that the question for consideration of the Supreme Court in the said judgment was of the construction of section 85(2)(a) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996. Learned counsel for the respondent also makes an attempt to distinguish the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Milkfood Limited (supra) on similar ground.

54. Learned counsel for the respondent distinguished the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Vidyawati Gupta & Ors. (supra) and would submit that section 34(5) in this case being mandatory, non-compliance of such mandatory provision would carbp434-17 render the proceedings non-est in the eyes of law. Learned counsel for the respondent distinguished the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Kailas vs. Nanhku & Ors. (supra) on the ground that prior notice contemplated under section 34(5) is an integral part of the application under section 34 touching to the maintainability of the application itself and not a procedure in the facts before the Supreme Court in the said judgment while considering the provisions of Order VIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

55. Learned counsel for the respondent distinguished the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Topline Shoes Limited (supra) on the ground that the object of the amendment to the Principal Act, 1996 was by virtue of the amendments to section 34(5) read with section 34(6) so as to fix the time frame for disposal of the challenge petitions filed under section 34 so that the award creditor will not be deprived of the fruits of the award. Learned counsel for the respondent distinguished the judgment of the Madras High Court in case of M/s.Jumbo Bags Limited (supra) on the ground that the said judgment is contrary to the judgments of this Court in case of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra) and Enercon GmbH (supra)

56. Learned counsel for the respondent distinguished the judgment of the Kerala High Court in case of Shamsudeen vs. Shreeram Transport Finance Co. Ltd. & Ors., (supra) on the ground that the said judgment is contrary to the principles laid down by this Court in case of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra) and Enercon GmbH (supra).

57. Insofar as the judgment delivered by a single Judge of the carbp434-17 Patna High Court in case of Bihar Rajya Bhumi Vikas Bank Samiti (supra) is concerned, it is submitted by the learned counsel for the respondent that the said judgment is overruled by the Division Bench of the Patna High Court. Insofar as the judgment of the Himachal Pradesh High Court dated 24th August, 2016 in case of M/s.Madhava Hytech Engineers Pvt. Ltd. vs. The Executive Engineers and Anr. In OMP (M) No.48 of 2016, delivered on 24th August, 2017 is concerned, learned counsel for the respondent distinguished the said judgment on the ground that the said judgment has dealt with an application under section 14 of the Limitation Act and the facts before the Himachal Pradesh High Court in the said judgment were totally different and are distinguishable in the facts of this case.

58. Mr.Ashish Kamat, learned counsel appearing for the respondent in Arbitration Petition No.624 of 2017 adopted the submissions made by Ms.Munim, learned counsel for the respondent in Commercial Arbitration Petition No.434 of 2017 and would submit that the object and purpose of introducing the section 34(5) and 34(6) is expeditious disposal of the arbitration petitions challenging an arbitral award. Such provisions are mandatory in its nature. The arbitration petition challenging the arbitral award can be filed only post issuance of such mandatory notice. The obligation to issue such notice is on the party who seeks to challenge an arbitral award. The duty is cast on the office of the Court to ensure that due compliance of such mandatory notice is made by the petitioner before filing of the arbitration petition under section 34.

59. It is submitted by the learned counsel that section 34(5) provides for an implied consequence of non-compliance of issuance carbp434-17 of the mandatory notice. Though there is no specific consequence provided in section 34(6), if such arbitration application is not disposed of within one year from the date of service of the notice under section 34(5) upon the respondent, the period of one year may be curtailed and such arbitration petition has to be disposed of by the Court within the balance period left after service of such notice upon the respondent. He submits that a party who deliberately delays filing of the petition cannot be benefited. Even if the provisions of section 34(6) is not mandatory, the provisions of section 34(5) is mandatory.

60. Mr.Jain, learned counsel for the petitioner in Commercial Arbitration Petition No.236 of 2017 in rejoinder placed reliance on paragraph 289 of the judgment of this Court in case of The Board of Trustees of the Port of Mumbai (supra) and distinguished the judgment of this Court in case of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra) by placing reliance on paragraphs 45, 62, 65, 66 and 78 and would submit that in the said judgment, learned single Judge of this Court has only decided the said matter based on the applicability of section 36 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996. In support of this submission, he invited my attention to the paragraphs 10 to 12, 26, 27, 46, 52, 58 and 59 of the said judgment. He submits that in the said judgment, the learned single Judge has not based her decision on construing section 26 of the Amendment Act but the entire judgment is based on the issue involved in the said judgment about the applicability of section 36 in the pending arbitration petitions prior to 23rd October, 2015. He once again led emphasis on paragraph 22(5) of the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Thyssen Stahlunion GMBH (supra). He submits that the right to file an application under section 34 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, carbp434-17 1996 had accrued in favour of the petitioner when the petitioner had invoked the arbitration agreement by issuing a notice and when the same was received by the other side in view of section 21 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996. He submits that at the most, the Court can construe that the requirement of notice under section 34(5) introduced by the Amendment Act would provide an additional condition and not mandatory condition.

REASONS AND CONCLUSIONS :

61. Since the main arguments are advanced by the learned counsel for the parties in Commercial Arbitration Petition No.434 of 2017 and Commercial Arbitration Petition No.236 of 2017, I shall briefly indicate the admitted facts which are relevant for the purpose of deciding the legal issues raised by the respondent in these batch of petitions.

62. Insofar as Commercial Arbitration Petition No.434 of 2017 is concerned, the petitioner had issued a notice invoking arbitration clause on 28th February, 2011. On 4th December, 2012, the learned designate of the Chief Justice appointed the sole arbitrator in an application filed by the petitioner under section 11(6) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996. On 23 rd October, 2015, the Amendment Act came into effect. On 12th April, 2017, learned arbitrator made an award i.e. after the Amendment Act came into force. On 21 st August, 2017, the petitioner filed this arbitration petition. The respondent has raised a plea in the affidavit in reply dated 5th October, 2017 about the maintainability of this petition in view of non-issuance of prior notice by the petitioner under section 34(5) of the Amendment Act.

63. Insofar as Commercial Arbitration Petition No.236 of 2017 carbp434-17 is concerned, the petitioner had issued a notice invoking arbitration agreement on 14th June, 2014. Learned arbitrator accepted his nomination and entered upon the reference on 7 th August, 2014. Learned arbitrator made an award on 25 th November, 2016. The petitioner filed this arbitration petition on 12 th April, 2017. The respondent has raised an objection about the maintainability of this petition on the ground that the notice under section 34(5) of the Amendment Act has not been served upon the respondent before filing this petition across the bar.

64. On perusal of the aforesaid admitted facts, it is clear that in both these matters the arbitration agreements were invoked much prior to 23rd October, 2015. The arbitral awards are delivered by the Arbitral Tribunal after 23rd October, 2015. Both the Arbitration Petitions have been filed under section 34 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 after 23rd October, 2015.

65. Insofar as Commercial Arbitration Petition No.434 of 2017 is concerned, the arbitration agreement is recorded in clause 20 of the agreement dated 6th June, 2008 between the parties to this petition. The arbitration agreement does not provide that in case of any dispute arising between the parties in future under the said arbitration agreement, the parties will be governed not only by the provisions of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 but also by any statutory repeal thereto or any amendment thereto.

66. Insofar as Commercial Arbitration Petition No.236 of 2017 is concerned, the arbitration agreement is recorded in clause 25 of the Terminalling / Handling Services Agreement dated 5 th August, carbp434-17 2011. The arbitration agreement provides that the provision of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 or any statutory modification or re-enactment thereof and the rules made thereunder for the time being in force shall apply to the arbitration proceedings under the said provision.

67. By section 27 of the Amendment Act, the Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 is repealed. Section 21 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provides that unless agreed by the parties, the arbitral proceedings in respect of a particular dispute commence on the date on which a request for that dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by the respondent. Section 43 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provides that for the purposes of this section and the Limitation Act, 1963 (36 of 1963), an arbitration shall be deemed to have commenced on the date referred in section

21.

68. The Supreme Court in case of Thyssen Stahlunion GMBH (supra) has construed section 85(1)(a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act and has held that the provisions of Arbitration Act, 1940 shall apply in relation to the arbitral proceedings which are commenced before coming into force of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. Supreme Court has held that in the cases where arbitral proceedings have commenced before coming into force of the New Act (1996 Act) and are pending before the Arbitrator, it is open to the parties to agree that new Act be applicable to such arbitral proceedings and they can so agree even before the coming into force of the new Act. The new Act would be applicable in relation to arbitral proceedings which commenced on or after the new Act carbp434-17 comes into force.

69. It is held that once the arbitral proceedings have commenced, it cannot be stated that right to be governed by the old Act for enforcement of the award was an inchoate right. It was certainly a right accrued. It is not imperative that for right to accrue to have the award enforced under the old Act that some legal proceedings for its enforcement must be pending under that Act at the time new Act came into force. If narrow meaning of the phrase “in relation to arbitral proceedings” is to be accepted, it is likely to create great deal of confusion with regard to the matters where award is made under the old Act. Provisions for the conduct of arbitral proceedings are vastly different in both the old and the New Act. An interpretation which leads to unjust and inconvenient results cannot be accepted. A foreign award given after the commencement of the new Act can be enforced only under the new Act.

70. The Supreme Court held that the provisions of the old Act shall apply in relation to the arbitral proceedings which commenced before the new Act came into force unless otherwise agreed by the parties and (2) new Act shall apply in relation to arbitral proceedings which commenced on or after the new Act came into force. The old Act will apply to whole gambit of arbitration culminating in the enforcement of the award. If it was not so, only the word “to” could have sufficed and when the legislature has used the expression “in relation to”, a proper meaning has to be given. It is held that the first limb of section 85(2)(a) is not a limited saving clause. It saves not only the proceedings pending at the time of commencement of the new Act but also the provisions of the old Act for enforcement of the carbp434-17 award under that Act. Multiple and complex problems would arise if the award given under the old Act is said to be enforced under the new Act. Both the Acts are vastly different to each other. It is held that when arbitration proceedings are held under the old Act, the parties and the arbitrator keep in view the provisions of that Act for the enforcement of the award. In paragraph (32) of the said judgment, it is held that it is not necessary that for the right to accrue that legal proceedings must be pending when the new Act comes into force. To have the award enforced when arbitral proceedings commenced under the old Act under that very Act is certainly an accrued right.

71. This Court in case of The Board of Trustees of the Port of Mumbai vs. Afcons Infrastructure Limited (supra) has considered a situation where notice invoking arbitration agreement was issued much prior to 23rd October, 2015. The arbitral award was rendered prior to 23rd October, 2015. The arbitration petition was filed in the year 2012 and was pending till 23 rd December, 2016. There was no provision in the arbitration agreement that the parties would be governed by not only the provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 but also by the statutory amendment or repealed thereto. This Court accordingly held that since the notice invoking arbitration agreement was issued prior to 23rd October, 2015, the provisions of amended section 34 brought into effect on 23rd October, 2015 would not be applicable to the facts of this case.

72. In case of Padmini C. Menon vs. Vijay C. Menon & Ors. in Arbitration Petition No.9 of 2015 in its judgment delivered on 10th January,2018, this Court held that in view of there being an agreement between the parties that the parties would be governed carbp434-17 not only by the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 but also statutory amendment or repeal thereto, though the arbitration proceedings had commenced prior to 23rd October, 2015, the amendment inserted in section 11 as section 11(6-A) would be applicable to the parties though the arbitration application filed by the applicant in the year 2015 was pending in this Court on 23 rd October, 2015 and thereafter this Court after adverting to section 85(2)(a) and section 26 of the Amendment Act has held that section 26 of the Amendment Act is an non-obstante provision. If the parties agree that the provisions contained in the said Amendment Act shall also apply to the arbitral proceedings commenced in accordance with the provisions of section 21 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996, the said amended provision would apply to such proceedings commenced earlier, otherwise the Amendment Act shall apply in relation to the arbitral proceedings on or after the date of commencement of the Amendment Act.

73. This Court held that in view of section 26 of the Amendment Act and in view of the specific agreement between the parties that the disputes will be settled not only in accordance with the provisions of the Arbitration & Conciliation, Act, 1996 prevailing on the date of the execution of the said agreement but also any statutory modifications thereof, Amendment Act would apply even if arbitral proceedings had commenced prior to 23rd October, 2015. It is held that section 11(6-A) of the Amendment Act thus would apply to the parties. This Court also followed the earlier two judgments of this Court in case of M/s.Amisha Buildcon Pvt. Ltd. vs. Jidnyasa Co- op. Housing Society Ltd., 2016 SCC OnLine Bom. 5234 and in case of Vipin Bhimlal Shah vs. Slum Rehabilitation Authority in carbp434-17 Arbitration Application No.251 of 2015 delivered on 12 th October, 2017 holding that the provisions of Amendment Act would apply in view of such agreement between parties. This Court also adverted to the judgment of Supreme Court in case of Duro Felguera vs. Gangavaram Port Ltd., (2017) 9 SCC 729 in which the Supreme Court had held that the parties would be governed by the amended provisions under section 11(6-A) of the Amendment Act and also to the several judgments of various High Courts taking a similar view. In my view, the principles laid down by the Supreme Court in the said judgment would apply to the facts of this case. I am respectively bound by the said judgment.

74. In my view, the principles laid down by the Supreme Court in case of Thyssen Stahlunion GMBH (supra) and judgments of this Court in case of The Board of Trustees of the Port of Mumbai vs. Afcons Infrastructure Limited (supra) and Padmini C. Menon vs. Vijay C. Menon & Ors. (supra) would apply to the facts of this case. I am respectively bound by those judgments.

75. A perusal of section 26 of the Amendment Act of 2015 clearly indicates that unless the parties otherwise agree, no provisions of the Amendment Act would apply to arbitral proceedings commenced in accordance with the provisions of section 21 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 prior to 23rd October, 2015. It also makes it clear that the provisions of Amendment Act shall apply in relation to the arbitral proceedings commenced on or after the date of commencement of the Amendment Act. It is thus clear that if in an arbitration agreement is entered into prior to 23rd October, 2015, and the parties had agreed that the parties would be governed not only by carbp434-17 the provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 but also by statutory amendment thereto or repeal thereto and if the notice invoking arbitration agreement under section 21 is received by the other party prior to 23rd October, 2015 when the arbitral proceedings contemplated under section 21 is commenced, the party will be governed by not only the provisions of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 but also by the statutory amendments thereto or repeal thereto and not otherwise.

76. If however there was no such agreement between the parties to apply the provisions of statutory amendments or repeal to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and the arbitral proceedings have commenced prior thereto 23rd October, 2015 by virtue of section 21 of the Arbitration Act, such arbitral proceedings will be governed by the provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 before its amendment brought into effect by Amendment Act w.e.f. 23rd October, 2015 irrespective of the fact that the award is rendered after 23rd October, 2015 or that the arbitration petition challenging an award is pending as on 23rd October, 2015 or filed thereafter.

77. In my view, since the arbitral proceedings commences on receipt of the notice invoking arbitration agreement by the other party as contemplated under section 21 read with section 43 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, if such notice is received by the other side after 23rd October, 2015, the provisions of the Amendment Act would apply to such matters. The parties cannot agree that they will not be bound by the provisions of the Amendment Act.

78. The respondent has strongly placed reliance on the carbp434-17 judgment delivered by a learned Single Judge of this Court in case of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra) and also on the judgment delivered by another learned Single Judge of this Court in case of Enercon GmBH (supra). Learned counsel appearing for the parties have dealt with both these judgments threadbare for consideration of this Court in support of their rival submissions.

79. Insofar as the judgment M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra) is concerned, chamber summons was filed by the original petitioner who had filed application under section 34 of the Arbitration Act inter-alia praying for dismissal of the application for execution of the arbitral award filed by the judgment debtor. The arbitral awards in that matter were made on 22nd June, 2015, 22nd June, 2015 and 28th January, 2015 respectively. Arbitration petitions were filed on 16th September, 2015 challenging the arbitral awards. One of the arbitration petition was admitted on 19th October, 2015. The question that arose before this Court in the said matter was whether in respect of those awards which were delivered prior to 23rd October, 2015 and the arbitration petitions also having been filed prior to 23rd October, 2015, those awards would become enforceable only if and when those petitions under section 34 were refused and not otherwise. A question was also before this Court that if Amendment Act is held applicable, whether after expiry of three months of the arbitral award, it becomes enforceable in accordance with the provisions of Code of Civil Procedure, irrespective of fact whether challenge has been filed under section 34 of the Act or not.

80. This Court recorded that there was no dispute between the parties as regards the specific meaning of the term arbitral carbp434-17 proceedings under the Arbitration Act. This Court also recorded that there was no dispute between the parties that the first part of section 26 carries restrictive meaning that the proceedings before the arbitral tribunal which proceedings get terminated on passing of the final award. It is held that by necessary implication, the saving section becomes exhaustive i.e. it takes within it’s fold all different types of proceedings arising out of the Arbitration Act. It is thus clear that in that judgment, there was no contest between the parties that the first part of saving section 26 carries restrictive meaning that the proceedings before the arbitral tribunal which proceedings get terminated with passing of the final award. The parties in that proceedings also did not dispute that the section 26 was consisting of two parts i.e. the arbitral proceedings before arbitral tribunal which are terminated by virtue of an order under section 32(1) and another arbitral proceedings before Court of law.

81. This Court held that if use of the verb “has been” is held to be in “present perfect tense”, section 36 of the Arbitration Act will be applicable not only to cases where a petition under section 34 of the Arbitration Act is filed after 23rd October, 2015 but also to cases where a petition has been filed before 23rd October, 2015. It is held that all the applications under section 34 pending in the Court for consideration will attract section 36(2) of the Amended Act. It is held that the vested right of the award-debtor under section 34 of the Arbitration Act is unaffected by the amendment to section 36 of the Arbitration Act. It is held that by the amended section 34 of the Arbitration Act, the shadow or impediment on the enforceability of the arbitral award has been removed to enable a successful claimant to enforce the arbitral award, unless the award-debtor obtains an order carbp434-17 of interim stay from the Court under section 36(3) of the Arbitration Act. The lifting of this shadow or impediment, on the enforceability of the arbitral award operates only in future i.e. after 23rd October, 2015 on the basis of an existing state of affairs, even if the award was passed or the petition under section 34 of the Arbitration Act was filed before 23rd October, 2015. The Amended section 36 of the Arbitration Act cannot be said to operate retrospectively, its operation is prospective in nature. This Court accordingly dismissed the chamber summons inter-alia praying for dismissing of the execution application.

82. A perusal of the judgment rendered by this Court in case of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra) indicates that this Court has held in the said judgment that right vested in the party under section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act is unaffected and not taken away by the amendment to section 36 of the Arbitration Act. A vested right available to the award-debtor would be only in the matter of challenge to the arbitral award which had remained intact. It is held that section 36 of the Arbitration Act pertains only to the enforcement of an award and its executability. The original section 34, imposed a disability on the award-holder in executing the award during pendency of the challenge to the award. It is held that the right to interim relief cannot be a vested or accrued substantive right. The disability imposed on the award-holder under original section 36 was absolute. It is thus clear that even in the said judgment, it is held by this Court that insofar as right of an aggrieved party to challenge an arbitral award is concerned, the said right is a vested right accrued to him which is not affected by section 36 by virtue of insertion of such amendment by the Amendment Act.

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83. This Court in the said judgment in case of

M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra) held that the parties in that case were ad-idem and both the parties had agreed that the term ‘arbitral proceedings’ referred in section 26 of the Amendment Act refers to two separate arbitral proceedings i.e. one before the arbitral tribunal before rendering of an award and another before this Court of law after rendering of an award. In these proceedings however Mr.Jain learned counsel for the petitioner had strenuously urged before this Court that the term ‘arbitral proceedings’ used in section 26 of the Amendment Act referred to only one arbitral proceedings which commences upon receipt of notice invoking arbitration agreement under section 21 of the Arbitration Act and not two separate stages of arbitration proceedings i.e. one before the arbitral tribunal and another before this Court. In my view, he rightly placed reliance by the term ‘arbitral proceedings’ referred by the legislature in various sections and more particularly sections 9, 13, 16, 17, 21, 22, 27, 29, 29A, 30, 31, 31A, 32, 34, 38 and 77. In section 31A(1)(IV) of the Arbitration Act, the Court as well as the arbitral tribunal are empowered to award cost based on the expenses incurred in connection with the arbitral and Court proceedings.

84. The aforesaid provisions would clearly indicate that the term ‘arbitral proceedings’ referred is only one arbitral proceedings which commences by virtue of the receipt of notice under section 21 of the Arbitration Act by the other party. The arbitral proceedings commences even before a statement of claim is filed or even before appointment of an arbitral tribunal. In my view, the arbitral proceedings referred in section 26 of the Amendment Act and under carbp434-17 various provisions of Arbitration Act referred to aforesaid cannot be construed as proceedings before Court or cannot be construed as two separate proceedings at two different stages i.e. one which commences on receipt of notice invoking arbitration agreement under section 21 and another before a Court i.e. at the stage of challenging an award or otherwise.

85. In my view, a plain and simple interpretation of section 26 of the Amendment Act on conjoint reading with other provisions of the Arbitration Act referred to aforesaid wherein the term ‘arbitral proceedings’ are referred would clearly indicate that the provisions in the Arbitration and Conciliation Act prior to the provisions of Amendment Act having been brought into effect would apply to all the arbitral proceedings wherein a notice invoking arbitration agreement under section 21 was received by the other party prior to 23 rd October, 2015 and the provisions of the Arbitration Act duly amended by the Amendment Act would apply to all the arbitral proceedings which have commenced after 23rd October, 2015 by virtue of a receipt of notice invoking arbitration agreement by other party in view of section 21 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. The phrase “the date of commencement of the arbitral proceedings” is a legal fiction and has to be read in conjunction with the words “commenced in accordance with section 21”.

86. The judgment of this Court in case of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra) thus to this extent does not support the case of the respondent but supports the case of the petitioner that the right to challenge an arbitral award is vested in favour of the aggrieved party and cannot be taken away by virtue of an amendment.

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87. The Supreme Court in case of Aravali Power Company Pvt. Ltd. vs. M/s.Era Infra Engineering Ltd., 2017 SCC OnLine 1072 has considered the applicability of the Amendment Act in a matter where notice invoking arbitration agreement was issued prior to 23rd October, 2015. During the pendency of the arbitral proceedings, section 12 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 was amended by the same Amendment Act. The respondent before the Supreme Court had invoked the amended provisions during the pendency of the arbitration proceedings before the learned arbitrator and had raised objection that the learned arbitrator was disqualified being an employee in view of the amendment to section 12(1) read with 7th Schedule. The respondent had also filed an application under section 14 seeking termination of the mandate of the learned arbitrator. High Court had entertained such application filed by the respondent before the learned arbitrator and the petitioner before the High Court. Supreme Court has reversed the said view of the High Court and has categorically held that in pre-amendment cases, the law laid down in Northern Railway Administration’s case must be applied and not otherwise.

88. It is held by the Supreme Court in that case governed by 1996 Act after the Amendment Act has come into force that if the arbitration Clause finds foul with the amended provisions, the appointment of the Arbitrator even if apparently in conformity with the arbitration Clause in the agreement, would be illegal and thus the Court would be within its powers to appoint such arbitrator(s) as may be permissible. The procedure as laid down in unamended section 12 mandated disclosure of circumstances likely to give rise to carbp434-17 justifiable doubts as to independence and impartiality of the Arbitrator. Supreme Court accordingly interfered with the order of the High Court exercising jurisdiction in that case and held that the High Court ought not to have interfered with the process and progress of the arbitration. The principles laid down by the Supreme Court in case of Aravali Power Company Pvt. Ltd. (supra) squarely applies to the facts of this case. This judgment of the Supreme Court is delivered after the date of delivery of the judgment of this Court in case of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra) and in case of Enercon GmBH (supra). This Court while delivering these judgments did not have benefit of the judgment of Supreme Court in case of Aravali Power Company Pvt. Ltd. (supra).

89. In my view, the judgment of this Court in case of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra) holding that there are two stages of arbitral proceedings referred in section 26 of the Amendment Act is based on the consensus of the parties and even otherwise contrary to the judgment of Supreme Court in case of Aravali Power Company Pvt. Ltd. (supra). I am bound by the judgment of Supreme Court.

90. In case of Voestalpine Schienen GmbH vs. Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd., (2017) 4 SCC 665, the Supreme Court has considered a different situation where the notice invoking arbitration agreement was issued after 23rd October, 2015 and the arbitral proceedings had commenced after Amendment Act came into force. The appointment of the arbitrator was not in conformity with section 12(1) of the Amendment Act Supreme Court interfered with such appointment by applying the provisions of the Amendment Act, 2015. The Supreme Court distinguished the judgments delivered prior to the carbp434-17 said amendment to the facts of that case before the Supreme Court in view of the admitted fact that the notice invoking arbitration agreement was issued after 23rd October,2015.

91. This judgment of the Supreme Court is adverted to by the Supreme Court in case of Aravali Power Company Pvt. Ltd. (supra) and was distinguished on the ground that in that matter, the notice under section 21 of the Arbitration Act was issued prior to 23rd October,2015. In my view the principles of law laid down by the Supreme Court would apply to the facts of this case to a situation where the notice under section 21 is issued after 23 rd October, 2015 thereby arbitral proceedings having commenced after 23rd October,2015. It is thus clear beyond reasonable doubt that if the notice under section 21 to invoke arbitration agreement has been received prior to 23rd October, 2015, the arbitral proceedings had commenced prior to 23rd October, 2015 and thus the provisions of the unamended Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 would continue to apply to such proceedings before the arbitral tribunal as well as before Court and not the provisions of the Amendment Act. This Court in case of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra) and in case of Enercon GmBH (supra) did not have benefit of the judgment of Supreme Court in case of Voestalpine Schienen GmbH (supra).

92. This Court in case of Marwadi Shares & Finance Ltd. vs. Miral Kanaksinh Thakore & Anr. (2014) 1 Bom.C.R. 481 has considered the amendment in the bye-laws and the regulations of Bombay Stock Exchange Limited which were amended during the pendency of the arbitral proceedings before the arbitral tribunal and by virtue of such amendment, the power to condone the delay in filing carbp434-17 the arbitration petition before the appellate bench was taken away. This Court after adverting to various judgments of the Supreme Court, including the judgment in case of Garikapati Veeraya vs. N. Subiah Choudhry, AIR 1957 SC 540 held that the rights and remedies accrued to the petitioner and subsequent rights and/or remedy in filing the proceedings before the superior Court or the appellate forum would continue and cannot be divested by the amendment unless it is shown clearly intended by the amendment to make it applicable with retrospective effect. It is held that the petitioner in that matter had filed the proceedings before the learned arbitrator. The right of filing an appeal against the impugned award, if any, and a right to file an application for condonation of delay on showing sufficient cause on the date of filing of the original proceedings would be continued.

93. It is held that the petitioner had vested right to impugn the arbitral award rendered by the sole arbitrator along with an application for condonation of delay in the event of delay by showing sufficient cause. The day on which the impugned award was rendered by the learned sole arbitrator, there was no amendment to bye-law 2 and the regulations of the Bombay Stock Exchange thereby taking away the powers of the appellate bench to condone the delay. This Court held that in such a situation section 6(e) of the General Clauses Act, 1897 would be attracted. This Court accordingly has set aside the order passed by the appellate bench of the Bombay Stock Exchange and directed that the appellate bench to hear the application for condonation of delay.

94. In this case also, it is not the case of any of the parties that section 34(5) an 34(6) inserted by the Amendment Act would be carbp434-17 applicable with retrospective effect. Even otherwise the intent of the legislation while inserting these two provisions does not indicate that the said provisions are brought into effect with retrospective effect. In my view, when the arbitration proceedings commenced in view of the notice issued by the petitioner under section 21 much prior to 23rd October, 2015 and since at that point of time, the petitioner was not required to issue any prior notice to the respondent before filing of the arbitration petition under section 34, merely because the award is rendered after 23rd October, 2015 and the petition is filed after the said amendment, the conditions imposed in section 34(5) and 34(6) cannot be made applicable to such matters where the arbitral proceedings had commenced much prior to the date of the amendment.

95. In my view, the parties would be governed by the right and remedy available to the parties existing on the date of invoking the arbitration agreement and not on the date of the award or on the date of filing of the arbitration petition unless the legislature so specifically provided for a different remedy or the conditions introduced by invoking such remedy in law with retrospective effect. In my view, section 34(5) and 34(6) thus cannot be pressed in the service by the respondent to deprive the petitioner of filing a petition challenging an award in such matters without issuing any prior notice to the respondent. In my view, the right of challenging the award under section 34 is a vested right to impugn the arbitral award which cannot be taken away by such amendment under section 34(5). The principles laid down by this Court in case of Marwadi Shares & Finance Limited (supra) applies to the facts of this case. In view of section 6(e) of the General Clauses Act, 1897, the parties who had carbp434-17 invoked the arbitration agreement prior to 23rd October, 2015, would be continued to be governed by the provisions applicable on the date of invocation of such arbitration agreement and not on the date when the arbitral award is rendered or when the arbitration petition challenging an arbiral award is filed.

96. The Supreme Court in case of Milkfood Limited (supra) has construed section 21 as well as section 85(2)(a) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 and also the provisions of section 37(3) of the Arbitration Act, 1940. It is held by the Supreme Court that the service of notice and/or issuance of request for appointment of an arbitrator in terms of the arbitration agreement must be held to be determinative of commencement of the arbitral proceedings. The Supreme Court adverted to the judgment in case of Thyssen Stahlunion GMBH (supra) and has held that the judgment in that case itself is an authority for proposition that in relation to the domestic arbitration proceedings, commencement thereof shall co- incide with the service of request / notice.

97. It is held by the Supreme Court that the commencement of the arbitration proceedings for the purpose of limitation or otherwise is of the Court’s conscience. If a proceeding commences, the same becomes relevant for many purposes including that of limitation. In paragraph 70 of the said judgment, it is held that those arbitral proceedings which were commenced before coming into force of the 1996 Act are saved and the provisions of the 1996 Act would apply in relation to the arbitral proceedings which commenced on or after the said Act came into force. Even for the said limited purpose, it is necessary to find out as to what is meant by commencement of carbp434-17 arbital proceedings for the purpose of the 1996 Act wherefor also necessity of reference to section 21 would arise. In my view, the principles laid down by the Supreme Court in case of Milkfood Limited (supra) would squarely apply to the facts of this case.

98. The reference to “arbitral proceedings” in section 26 of the Amendment Act refers to such proceedings at two different stages i.e. one before the Amendment Act came into effect and another after such amendment came into force i.e. after 23rd October, 2015. It is thus clear beyond reasonable doubt that the term “arbitral proceedings” referred in section 26 is one and the same proceedings which commences upon receipt of notice under section 21 by the other party and does not refer to two separate arbitral proceedings i.e. one before the arbitral tribunal and another before the Court of law. Section 21 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 does not apply to proceedings in Court. Arbitration proceedings in Court does not commence upon receipt of notice under section 21 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 by the other party. In my view, the intention of the legislature is very clear in this respect.

99. The date of filing of the arbitration petition under section 34 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 before 23 rd October, 2015 or after such date is not relevant for the purpose of deciding whether the parties will be governed by the provisions of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 before insertion of the amendments by the Amendment Act or not.

100. This Court even today deals with the matters under section 30 of the Arbitration Act, 1940 in respect of which notice for carbp434-17 appointment of an arbitrator under section 37(3) of the Arbitration Act, 1940 was issued prior to the provisions of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 came into effect. All such matters where the arbitral proceedings commenced under the provisions of Arbitration Act, 1940 are continued to be governed by the provisions of the said Act though an arbitration petition challenging the award under section 30 of the Arbitration Act, 1940 is filed after the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 came into force.

101. The Supreme Court in case of Andhra Pradesh Power Coordination Committee & Ors. vs. Lanco Kondapalli Power Ltd. & Ors., (2016) 3 SCC 468 has held that the notice of arbitration amounting to initiation of the arbitral proceedings as contemplated under section 21 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996.

102. This Court in case of Board of Trustees of Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust vs. Three Circles Contractors, (2015) SCC OnLine Bom. 951 has held that as the arbitration proceedings commences in respect of the disputes which are referred in the notice invoking the arbitration agreement on the date on which such notice is received by the respondent, limitation in respect of such disputes stops.

103. Insofar as the submission of the learned counsel for the respondent that the judgment of this Court in case of M/s.Rendezvous Sports World (supra) applies to the facts of this case and is binding on this Court is concerned, even in the said judgment, this Court has held that the Amendment Act does not repeal section 34. This Court in the said judgment has categorically carbp434-17 held that the vested right available to the award debtor would be only in the matter of challenge to the arbitration award which has remained intact and such right is unaffected by the amendment to section 36 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996. In my view, Mr.Jain, learned counsel for the petitioner is right in his submission that impediment created by section 34(5) i.e. for issuance of prior notice before filing of the arbitration application cannot affect the vested right prescribed under section 34(1) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996.

104. In this case, the petitioner had already served a copy along with a copy of the arbitration petition upon the respondent on 18 th April, 2017 i.e. after filing of the arbitration petition. In my view, learned counsel is right in his submission that the principles under section 4 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 are applicable to the present situation and issuance of such notice can also be waived by the respondent under section 4 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996. The respondent in that matter has also filed a arbitration petition without issuing the notice under section 34(5) to the petitioner.

105. I shall now deal with the second issue arising in these matters as to whether the compliance of the requirement of prior notice contemplated under section 34(5) before filing an arbitration application under section 34(1) is mandatory or directory.

106. The Law Commission of India in its report dated 5 th August, 2014 had suggested various amendments to the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996. Insofar as Note on section 34(5) in the said report is concerned, it is mentioned that the said provision of section carbp434-17 34(5) has been included to streamline the process and to cut short the long delays which occurs due to issuance of the notice.

107. Chapter XLIII-A of the Bombay High Court (Original Side) Rules provides for the rules relating to the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996. It provides for the mode of application, contents of the petition and also provides for notice of filing an application to the persons likely to be affected. Rule 803-E provides that upon any application under the Act, the Judge in Chambers shall, if he accepts the petition, direct notice thereof to be given to all persons mentioned in the petition and to such other persons as may seen to him to be likely to be affected by the proceedings, requiring all or any of such persons to show cause, within the time specified in the notice, why the relief sought in the petition should not be granted. The said rules framed by this Court are statutory rules.

108. Rule 803-B clearly provides that save as otherwise provided in the said rules, all applications under the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 shall be made by the petitioner and shall be placed on board for admission after prior notice to all parties concerned. The Judge, may consider the admission of the Petition in exercise of his discretion even though no such notice is served on the other side. The Judge may admit or reject the Petition or pass such other orders thereon as he may deem fit. It is thus clear that all the respondents are required to be served with a copy of notice before the arbitration petitions are heard for admission. The recommendation of the Law Commission of India, in the said report that the purpose of introducing section 34(5) is to streamline the process and to cut short the long delays which accrued due to issuance of Court notice is carbp434-17 taken care of.

109. It is the practice of this Court not to hear any arbitration petition unless a copy of notice and the papers and proceedings are first served upon the opponents. Section 34(5) does not contemplate that after the prior notice is served, the petitioner is not required to serve the notice along with papers and proceedings upon the other party before the matter is heard for admission.

110. This Court in case of Ashraf Ahmed vs. The Municipal Corporation of Greater Bombay in First Appeal No.292 of 1999 has construed the requirement of notice under section 527 of the Mumbai Municipal Corporation Act and the consequence of non-compliance thereof. It is held that all the object of the notice under section 527 of the said Act is to give sufficient time to the Bombay Municipal corporation and/or its authorities to consider the prayer for redressal of the plaintiff’s grievances without resorting to any litigation. It is always open to the Bombay Municipal Corporation and/or its concerned authorities to waive the notice under section 527 of the Act or they may be estopped by conduct from pleading the want of notice. It is held that where the Bombay Municipal Corporation fails to raise a specific plea for want of notice at the earliest, by its conduct it may be estopped from pleading the want of notice at a later stage.

111. The Supreme Court in case of Macquire Bank Limited vs. Shilpi Cable Technologies Limited in Civil Appeal No.15135 of 2017 after adverting to the earlier judgment in case of Surendra Trading Company vs. Juggilal Kamalapat Jute Mills Company Limited & Ors. in Civil Appeal No.8400 of 2017 held that the carbp434-17 procedural provision cannot be stretched and considered as mandatory, when it causes serious general inconvenience. The Supreme Court also adverted to the earlier judgment in case of Mahanath Ram Das vs. Ganga Das, (1961) SCR 763 and held that such procedural orders, though peremptory are in essence in terrorem, so that dilatory litigants might put themselves in order and avoid delay, they do not, however, completely estop a Court from taking note of events and circumstances which happen within the time fixed.

112. This Court in case of Central Bank of India vs. Femme Pharma Limited & Ors., AIR 1982 Bom. 67 has construed the powers of Court under Rule 227 of the High Court (Original Side) Rules, 1980 and Rule 220(4) of the High Court (Original Side) Rules, 1957 and has held that though the suit is placed on board for dismissal, under the old Rules of 1957, the discretion of the Court was limited to sufficient cause being shown and if sufficient cause is not shown, the suit has to be dismissed. However, under the Rules of 1980, it only provides for a suit to be placed on board for dismissal but is silent on what happens thereafter. The new Rules of 1980 provides a wider discretion than before and the Court is not bound to dismiss the suit.

113. A perusal of section 34(5) read with section 34(6) of the Amendment Act makes it clear that even if prior notice is not given to the other party by the petitioner of filing an application under section 34 challenging an award and even if such application filed under section 34 is not decided by the Court within one year from the date of service of the said notice under section 34(5), no consequence of carbp434-17 such default is provided therein. Section 34(5) also does not provide the mode and manner of such service. Whether a copy of the arbitration petition along with annexures proposed to be filed also is required to be served along with such notice or not is not contemplated in the said provision.

114. The said provision also is silent on the issue i.e. if there are office objections raised by the office of this Court and if the petitioner is required to make any changes in the petition in the format or in the contents of the petition for the purposes of removal of such objections raised by the office, whether the petitioner is required to issue a fresh notice along with the papers with the corrections in the petition or not. Section 34(6) provides that such petition has to be disposed of within one year from the date on which the notice referred to in sub section 5 of section 34 is served upon the other party. If after giving the notice on the first day itself upon the receipt of the signed copy of the award from the arbitral tribunal,if the petitioner issues such notice as referred to in sub section 5 of section 34 and does not file the petition for the next three months or even within 30 days after expiry of three months and if filed within the time prescribed under section 34(3), the petition remains in the office objections for another six months, an application filed under section 34(1) obviously cannot be disposed of within a period of one year from the date on which a notice referred to in sub section 5 of section 34 is served upon the other party.

115. No consequence is provided in section 34(6) also if the arbitration petition is not disposed of by the Court within one year from the date of service of notice under section 34(5) of the carbp434-17 Amendment Act. For this reason also, I am of the view that the provisions of section 34(5) and 34(6) cannot be construed as mandatory but has to be construed as directory. In my view, the requirement of the notice under section 34(5) of the Amendment Act is procedural in nature and not a substantive provision. The compliance of such procedural provision without providing any consequences in case of defiance thereof thus cannot be construed as mandatory and has to be construed as directory. Even if a notice is not given prior to the date of filing of the petition, the right of challenging an award vested in section 34 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 cannot be taken away.

116. No substantive right is created on the other party even if such prior notice is not issued by the petitioner of filing the arbitration petition as contemplated under section 34(5) of the Amendment Act. If the arguments of the respondent is accepted, the Court has to dismiss such arbitration petitions which are filed without issuing prior notice under section 34(5) of the Amendment Act. The consequence of the petitioner not issuing such prior notice before filing of the arbitration petition would be serious and would amount to taking away the vested and substantive right available to the petitioner to impugn the arbitral award within the time prescribed under the Act. The procedure prescribed under section 34(5), can in my view be complied with even after the arbitration petition is filed by the petitioner under the said provisions or in accordance with the provisions of the High Court (Original Side) Rules.

117. The Supreme Court in case of Thirumalai Chemicals Limited vs. Union of India & Ors. (2001) 6 SCC 739 has held that carbp434-17 the procedural law established a mechanism for determining those rights and liabilities and a machinery for enforcing them, the same cannot be called a substantive right and an aggrieved person cannot claim any vested right. It is held that unless the language used plainly manifests in express terms or by necessary implication a contrary intention, a statute divesting vested rights is to be construed as prospective. A statue merely procedural is to be construed as retrospective and a statue which while procedural in its character, affects vested rights adversely, is to be construed as prospective.

118. In my view, Mr.Mehta, learned senior counsel and Mr.Jain, learned counsel have rightly contended that issuance of such notice under section 34(5) is a requirement however, not mandatory. The discretionary power is given to the Courts to look into the facts in each case and decide if the same has to be made mandatory or not. If the provision of section 34(5) is construed as mandatory, it would take away the discretionary powers from the Court. Any strict interpretation of such procedural provision will cause inconvenience to the parties and would result in lengthening the procedure and defeating the entire purpose of the Act itself. High Court (Original Side) Rules already provides sufficient protection to the other party for issuance of a notice before the matter is heard by the Court with a view to obviate any delay in the matter.

119. The Supreme Court in case of M/s.Babbar Sewing Machine Company vs. Trilok Nath Mahajan, (1978) 4 SCC 188 has held that the order for dismissal ought not be made under Order XI Rule 21, unless the Court is satisfied that the plaintiff wilfully withheld information or documents and the defence be struck out in case of carbp434-17 the defendant and placed in the same position as if he had not defended the suit. It is held that under the said provision, it is only when the default is wilful and only as a last resort that the Court should dismiss the suit or strike out the defence by exercising such power.

120. The Supreme Court in case of State of Goa vs. Western Builders, (2006) 6 SCC 239 has held that by virtue of section 43 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996, Limitation Act, 1963 applies to the proceedings under the Act of 1996 and the provisions of the Limitation Act can only stand excluded to the extent wherever different period has been prescribed under the Act of 1996. It is held that since there is no prohibition provided under section 34, there is no reason why section 14 of the Limitation Act should not be read in the Act of 1996, which will advance the cause of justice. It is held that if the statute is silent and there is no specific prohibition then the statue should be interpreted which advances the cause of justice.

121. In my view since there is no consequence provided in section 34(5) as well as section 34(6) for non-compliance of the requirement mentioned therein, the Court has to balance the situation and exercise its discretionary power to permit the petitioner to issue notice along with papers and proceedings upon the other party even after the petition is filed to avoid any delay in disposal of such application. In my view section 34(5) cannot be equated with section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. In view of the fact that now by virtue of the amendment to section 36, merely upon filing of the arbitration application for challenging an award under section 34, there is no automatic stay, the petitioner who challenges the arbitral carbp434-17 award by filing an application under section 34 would not wait and would not cause any delay by not issuing notice upon the other party to obviate any situation of execution of award under the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. For this reason also, I am of the view that the requirement under section 34(5) has to be construed as directory and nor mandatory.

122. The Division Bench of this Court in case of Bankay Bihari G. Agrawal & Ors. vs. M/s.Bhagwanji Meghji & Ors., (2001) 1 Mh.L.J. 345 while construing the order 37 Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 has held that merely because the defendant fails to appear or file his Vakalatnama or fails to obtain leave to defend the suit, the suit cannot be decreed if the Judge is satisfied that there is no cause of action at all disclosed in the plaint. It is this wide discretion of the Court which has been expressly recognized in Rule

221. It it held that notwithstanding the somewhat peremptory phraseology used in Order 37, Rule 2(2), suggesting that no such discretion is vested in the Court, there is always vested in the Court the judicial discretion to permit a plaintiff to take advantage of the summary procedure or to relegate him to the normal remedy of a regular suit. It is held that mere failure of the plaintiff to take out a Summons for Judgment within six months after the filing of the plaint would not justify granting of unconditional leave to defend the suit.

123. The Supreme Court in case of Vidyawati Gupta & Ors. (supra) has construed the provisions of section 26(2) and Order 4 Rule 1, Order 6 Rule 15(4) and Order 7 Rule 1 to 8 as amended from 1st July, 2002 and has held that those provisions are procedural and directory and thus non-compliance thereof did not automatically carbp434-17 render the plaint non-est and was curable. The principles laid down by the Supreme Court in the said judgment would apply to the facts of this case.

124. The Supreme Court in case of Topline Shoes Limited (supra) construed the provisions of section 13(2)(a) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 by which time limit was prescribed for filing of version of the opposite party and has held that the said provision is directory and not mandatory. The Supreme Court in the said judgment held that the intention to provide a time frame to file reply, is really meant to expedite the hearing of such matters and to avoid unnecessary adjournments to linger on the proceedings on the pretext of filing reply. The provision, however, as framed, does not indicate that it is mandatory in nature. In case the extended time exceeds 15 days, no penal consequences are prescribed therefor. The period of extension of time “not exceeding 15 days”, does not prescribe any kind of period of limitation. The Supreme Court accordingly held that the provision appears to be directory in nature. It is held that the provision is more by way of procedure to achieve the object of speedy disposal of such disputes. But it falls short of creating any kind of substantive right in favour of the complainant by reason of which the respondent may be debarred from placing his version in defence in any circumstances whatsoever.

125. In section 34(5) also, no consequence is provided in the event of the petitioner not issuing any prior notice before filing of the arbitration petition under section 34 to the respondent. Similarly, there is also no consequence provided in section 34(6), if the Court is not able to dispose of the arbitration petition under section 34 within one carbp434-17 year from the date of service of notice contemplated under section 34(5) upon other party. The purpose and the legislative intent of inserting those provisions is the speeder disposal of the proceedings and not to penalise the petitioner for non-compliance of the procedure which is directory. Powers of the Court under section 34(5) are not circumscribed by powers under section 34(2).

126. The Madras High Court in case of M/s.Jumbo Bags Limited (supra) has construed the provisions of section 11(6-A) which is also inserted by the Amendment Act and after considering the fact that the notice invoking arbitration agreement was issued prior to 23rd October, 2015 and after adverting to the judgment of the Supreme in case of Milkfood Limited (supra) held that the amended provisions under section 11(6-A) would not come into play in that case. In my view, the principles laid down by the Madras High Court would clearly apply to the facts of this case. I am in complete agreement with the views expressed by the Madras High Court in the said judgment.

127. The Kerala High Court in case of Shamsudeen (supra) has considered the provisions of section 34(5) inserted by the Amendment Act and has considered the fact that the notice invoking arbitration agreement was issued much prior to 23rd October, 2015 and accordingly held that section 34(5) of the Amendment Act has no application to the facts of that case and thus the petitioner was not required to comply with the provisions of section 34(5). The facts before the Kerala High Court are identical to the facts of this case. The principles laid down by the Kerala High Court in the said judgment would squarely apply to the facts of this case. I am in carbp434-17 complete agreement with the views expressed by the Kerala High Court in the said judgment.

128. The judgments of the Supreme Court in case of M/s.Raptakos Brett & Co. Ltd. vs. Ganesh Property (supra), in case of State of Maharashtra vs. Hindustan Construction Company (supra), in case of Roshanlal Kuthalia & Ors. vs. R.B. Mohan Singh Oberoi (supra) and in case of Snehadeep Structures Private Limited vs. Maharashtra Small – Scale Industries Development Corporation Limited (supra) also would assist the case of the petitioner.

129. The Supreme Court in case of Thirumalai Chemicals Limited (supra) has held that the right of appeal conferred under section 19(1) of the FEMA is a substantive right. Unless the language used plainly manifests in express terms or by necessary implication a contrary intention, a statute divesting vested rights is to be construed as prospective and a statue which is procedural in its character and affects vested rights adversely is to be construed as prospective. The principles of law laid down by the Supreme Court in the said judgment are applicable to the facts of this case.

130. Insofar as the judgment delivered by the Division Bench of the Patna High Court in case of The Bihar Rajya Bhumi Vikas Bank Samiti, Bihar – Jharkhand (supra) relied upon by the learned counsel for the respondent is concerned, a perusal of the said judgment clearly indicates that the Patna High Court in the said judgment has not dealt with the judgments of the Supreme Court holding that if the notice under section 21 is received by other party carbp434-17 prior to 23rd October, 2015, the provisions of the unamended Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 would be applicable to the parties, whereas if such notice is received after 23rd October, 2015, the parties will be governed by the provisions of Amendment Act. The Patna High Court has also not considered the issue that there is no consequence provided in section 34(5) and 34(6) of the Amendment Act in the event of non-compliance of the said provisions. The Bombay High Court (Original Side) Rules specifically provides for issuance of notice by the petitioner upon the other party before the matter is heard by the Court. The judgment of the Patna High Court is thus clearly distinguishable and would not assist the case of the respondent.

131. The Supreme Court in case of Ananthesh Bhakta & Ors. vs. Nayana S. Bhakta, (2017) 5 SCC 185 has construed section 8(2) providing that the Judicial authorities shall not entertain the application or referring the disputes to arbitration unless the said application is accompanied by the original arbitration agreement or duly certified copy thereof and held that section 8(2) has to be interpreted to mean that the court shall not consider any application filed by the party under section 8(1) unless it is accompanied by the original arbitration agreement or duly certified copy thereof. The filing of the application without such original or certified copy, but bringing original arbitration agreement on record at the time when the court is considering the application shall not entail rejection of the application under section 8(2). The Supreme Court refused to accept the contention that the said application filed under section 8(1) was not maintainable since the same was not accompanied by the original arbitration agreement or certified copy thereof.

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132. It is thus clear that though the words used in section 8(2) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 that the Judicial authorities shall not entertain the application which is without accompanying the requisite documents, the Supreme Court has not dismissed such application and has held that such documents can be filed and considered even at the stage of considering the application. In my view, this judgment would also support the case of the petitioner that sections 34(5) and 34(6) are directory and not mandatory. The principles laid down by the Supreme Court in the said judgment would apply to the facts of this case. I am respectfully bound by the said judgment.

133. Insofar as the submission of the learned counsel for the respondent that if section 34(5) is considered as directory, the entire purpose of the amendments would be rendered otiose is concerned, in my view, there is no merit in this submission made by the learned counsel for the respondent. Since there is no consequence provided in the said provision in case of non-compliance thereof, the said provision cannot be considered as mandatory. The purpose of avoiding any delay in proceeding with the matter expeditiously is already served by insertion of appropriate rule in Bombay High Court (Original Side) Rules. The Court can always direct the petitioner to issue notice along with papers and proceedings upon other party before the matter is heard by the Court for admission as well as for final hearing. The vested rights of a party to challenge an award under section 34 cannot be taken away for non-compliance of issuance of prior notice before filing of the arbitration petition.

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134. Insofar as the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Union of India vs. Popular Construction Company Limited (supra) relied upon by the learned counsel for the respondent is concerned, the Supreme Court in the said judgment has construed sections 5 and 29(2) of the Limitation Ac, 1963, and also section 34 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996. It is held by the Supreme Court that in view of section 29(2) of the Limitation Act, 1963, the period prescribed for limitation under section 34(3) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 would apply. The expression “but not thereafter” described in section 34(3) is interpreted by the Supreme Court and it is held that the Arbitration Act being a self-contained Code, the Court has no power to condone delay beyond the period of 30 days and that also provided sufficient cause is shown. The judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Union of India (supra) is clearly distinguishable and would not assist the the case of the respondent.

135. Insofar as the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of M/s.Raptakos Brett & Co. Ltd. (supra) is concerned, the Supreme Court in the said judgment has construed section 69(2) of the Partnership Act, 1932 and has held that the said provision with regard to an unregistered firm is a penal provision and has to be strictly construed. In my view since under section 34(5) of the Amendment Act, no consequence is provided, the said provision cannot be considered as a penal provision and cannot be construed strictly. Section 34(5) and the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 cannot be equated with section 69(2) of the Partnership Act. The judgment of the Supreme Court in case of M/s.Raptakos Brett & Co. Ltd. (supra) thus would not assist the case of the respondent. The judgment of carbp434-17 this Court in First Appeal No.302 of 2013 and reported in 76 Company Cases, 244 (Bom.) also would not assist the case of the respondent.

136. Insofar as the submission of the learned counsel for the respondent that the effect of section 34(5) is clearly to impose a bar against the institution of an application under section 34(1) and thus the same should be construed as mandatory and not directory is concerned, on plain reading of section 34(5), it is clear that there is no clear bar provided under the said provision for not accepting the arbitration petition filed under section 34 on record unless a notice to other party is issued by the petitioner before filing of such petition. I am not inclined to accept the submission of the learned counsel for the respondent that the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of M/s.Raptakos Brett & Co. Ltd. (supra) would assist the case of the respondent and not the case of the petitioner. If section 34(5) is considered as mandatory and if a petition filed before issuance of such notice is dismissed on the ground of non-compliance, whether period taken in pursuing such petition has to be excluded under section 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963 would also be a relevant factor.

137. Insofar as the other judgments referred to and relied upon by the learned counsel for the petitioner referred to aforesaid, which are sought to be distinguished by the learned counsel for the respondent is concerned, in my view, learned counsel for the respondent could not distinguish any of those judgments. This Court has already dealt with those judgments in great detail in the earlier paragraphs of this judgment and are found clearly applicable to the facts of this case and assist the case of the petitioner.

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138. The conclusion drawn by this Court in this judgment is summarized as under :-

a). If notice invoking arbitration agreement is received by other party prior to 23rd October, 2015, the arbitration proceedings would commence prior to 23rd October, 2015. The provisions of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 in force prior to 23 rd October, 2015 would be applicable to such matters for all the purposes.

b). If notice invoking arbitration clause is received by other party after 23rd October, 2015,the parties will be governed by the provisions of the Arbitration & Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 for all the purposes.

c). The date of filing of the arbitration petition under section 34(1) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 is not relevant for the purpose of deciding the applicability of the provisions of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 i.e. pre-amendment or post amendment.

d). The expression “arbitral proceedings” described in section 26 of the Arbitration & Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 refers to two different periods i.e. (i) before 23rd October, 2015 and (ii) after 23rd October, 2015. The expression “in relation to the arbitral proceedings” provided in section 26 of the Arbitration & Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 does not refer to the arbitral proceedings in Court. The expression “in relation to the arbitral proceedings” prescribed in section 26 has to be read with section 21 of the carbp434-17 Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996.

e). Even in those cases where the notice invoking arbitration agreement under section 21 is received by other party after 23rd October, 2015, the provisions under section 34(5) and 34(6) are directory and not mandatory. The Court has ample power to direct the petitioner to issue notice along with papers and proceedings upon the respondent after the petitioner files the arbitration application under section 34(1) and before such petition is heard by the Court at the stage of admission.

f). The questions framed in the earlier part of the judgment are answered accordingly. The office is directed to place all the arbitration petitions in which an issue as to whether the provisions of section 34(5) and 34(6) of the Arbitration & Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 are mandatory or directory on board for admission on 28 th February, 2018.

(R.D. DHANUKA, J.)

CBEC Circular On Orders Of Supreme Court, High Courts And CESTAT Accepted By The Department

MASTI

 Circular No. 1063/2/2018-CX
F. No. 116/2/2018-CX 3
Government of India
Ministry of Finance
Department of Revenue
Central Board of Excise and Customs
New Delhi, North Block

16th of February, 2018
To,

The Principal Chief Commissioners/ Chief Commissioners/ Principal Commissioners of Central Tax & Central Excise (All)
Web-master, CBEC

Madam/Sir,

Sub: Orders of Supreme Court, High Courts and CESTAT accepted by the Department and on which no review petitions, SLPs have been filed– reg.

Field formations send SLP & CA proposals to the Board. Many of them after examination are not approved and such decisions of High Courts & Tribunals thus attain finality. It has been decided to disseminate such information to the field formations. Attention is invited to sixty three orders of different High Courts summarized in this Circular which have been accepted by the Department. In fourteen of these orders, Hon’ble High Courts have decided various questions of law. In the rest forty nine cases the Hon’ble High Courts have delivered judgments on the basis of some settled case law or have decided points of facts or have dismissed the appeal on monetary grounds. The said orders have been complied in this Circular so that cases pending in the field can be expeditiously decided, if the questions of law or facts involved are identical.

2. The Circular has two parts, namely Part I and Part II, where Part I comprises of the orders of various High Courts in which points of law have been decided and Part II comprises orders which have been decided on facts or have been dismissed on monetary limits. All the orders have been accepted by the Department and against them no SLP etc has been preferred in the Hon’ble Supreme Court.

3. This exercise has been undertaken as an endeavour to reduce litigations so that cases on similar questions of law or identical case on facts pending in your jurisdictions can be decided. Page 2 of 29

PART I:

1. (a) Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Rajasthan dated 29.02.2016 in the case of Savitri Concast Ltd. in DB C.W.P 4784/2012, 5285/2012 & 5286/2012,

(b) Decision of Hon’ble Punjab & Haryana High Court dated 14.09.2015 passed in CEA No. 20 of 2015 in the case of Commissioner, Central Excise Commissionerate, Chandigarh-I vs M/s Quality Steels, Mandigobindgarh,

(c) Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat dated 13.10.2015 in Tax Appeal No. 1581 of 2007 in the case of M/s Kohinoor Dyg & Ptg Mills (P) Ltd., Surat.

1.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned decisions where the Hon’ble High Courts dismissed the departmental appeals relying on the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court dated 24.11.2015 in the case of M/S Shree Bhagwati Steel Rolling vs Commissioner of Central Excise & Others.

1.2 In the case of M/S Shree Bhagwati Steel Rolling vs Commissioner. Of Central Excise & Others, the Hon’ble Supreme Court examined the question of law whether interest and penalty provisions under rules 96 ZO, 96 ZP and 96 ZQ which were framed to effectuate the provisions of section 3A of the Central Excise Act, 1944 are consistent with the provisions of the Act and held that they are ultra vires. An excerpt from the judgment is reproduced below,

“…imposition of a mandatory penalty equal to the amount of duty not being by statute would itself make rules 96ZO, 96 ZP and 96 ZQ without authority of law. We, therefore, uphold the contention of the assessees in all these cases and strike down rules 96ZO, 96 ZP and 96 ZQ insofar as they impose a mandatory penalty equivalent to the amount of duty on the ground that these provisions are violative of Article 14, 19(1)(g) and are ultra vires the Central Excise Act.”
2. (a) Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat dated 08.01.2016 in the matter of Commissioner of Central Excise vs Dashion Ltd in Tax Appeal No. 415 of 2013 & 662 of 2014 [2016-TIOL-111-HC-AHM-ST],
(b) Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Rajasthan dated 08.02.2016 in the matter of Commissioner Central Excise Commissionerate, Jaipur vs National Engineering Industries Ltd CEA No. 3/2016 [2016-TIOL-922-HC-RAJ-CX]
2.1 Department has accepted the judgments where the Hon’ble High Courts dismissed the Department’s appeal inter alia holding that substantial benefit cannot be denied because of procedural irregularity.
2.2 In the case of Dashion Ltd. the assessee was engaged in manufacture of water treatment plant and other connected items and was availing benefit of CENVAT credit on the duty paid on inputs, capital goods and input services as permissible under CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004. The assessee had five manufacturing units and had its registered office at Vatva, Ahmedabad. The assessee was also providing several taxable services such as erection and commissioning, repairing and maintenance of water treatment plant, etc.
2.3 The revenue authorities, during scrutiny of the records of the assessee, noticed that it was availing the credit of service tax paid for various services by one unit for the purpose of clearance of other unit. After gathering details from the assessee, the adjudicating authority issued show cause notice calling upon the assessee as to why the CENVAT credit of service tax on input service should not be recovered with interest and penalties. In the show cause notice itself, the adjudicating authority had referred to sub-rule (3) of Rule 15 of the Rules of 2004 as basis for such proposal. Two primary objections of the Department were that the assessee had not registered itself under the Service Tax (Registration of Special Category of Persons), Rules 2005 and that the tax credit from one unit was utilized for discharging tax liability of another unit instead of pro rata distribution amongst different units. The adjudicating authority confirmed the duty demands with interest and penalties.
2.4 Therefore, the points of law examined were that the assessee had utilized credit from one unit for the purpose of duty liability of its other unit without pro rata distribution by the input service distributor and further the assessee had not registered itself under the Service Tax (Registration of Special Category of Persons), Rules 2005.
2.3 Hon’ble High Court dismissed the department’s appeal holding that such view was not sustainable as there was no previous restriction of this nature under Rule 7 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004. Further non-registration of ISD is only a procedural irregularity for which substantial benefit of CENVAT credit cannot be denied when all the necessary records have been maintained by the respondent. Page 4 of 29

3. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Allahabad dated 27.04.2016 in the matter of M/s Bhushan Steel Ltd CEA No. 32/2016.

3.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Allahabad where the Hon’ble High Court upheld the decision of the CESTAT on the point of law that CENVAT credit of duty availed in excess and not proportionate to the assessable value of raw materials in terms of section 4 of the Central Excise Act, 1944, received by the party from their vendor is admissible to the manufacturer.

3.2 The issue that was examined in the order was that in case of sales of HR Coils by Tata Steel Limited to Bhusan Steel Ltd., the practice was that manufacturer, Tata Steel Limited, Jamshedpur stock transfers the goods to its own depot at Ghaziabad, situated in the premises of the consignment agent by issue of an invoice on which purportedly excise duty and education cess is paid. Bhushan Steel purchases the said HR Coils from the depot of Tata Steel Limited on issue of dispatch advice cum invoice, which bears a much lower price than the price shown on the invoice for removal of goods from the factory on stock transfer to depot. However, while availing the CENVAT credit, Bhushan Steel had taken credit on the basis of full amount shown on the invoice issued to Tata Steel depot on stock transfer.

3.3 CESTAT decided in favour of the party holding that supplier had not claimed any refund on account of reduction in price, relying on CBEC Circular No. 877/15/2008-CX dated 17.11.08 and Hon’ble Supreme Court decision in CCE vs MDS Swithchgear Ltd. [ 2008 (229) ELT 485 (SC)]. The Hon’ble High Court upheld the decision of the CESTAT and dismissed the departmental appeal.

4. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat dated 17.12.2015 in the matter of Apar Industries (Polymer Division) vs Union of India in Special Civil Application No. 7815 of 2014 [2015-TIOL-2859-HC-AHM-CUS]

4.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in the case of Apar Industries (Polymer Division) vs Union of India in Special Civil Application No. 7815 of 2014. The issue examined in the order is as follows, Manufacturer exporter, M/s Apar Industries (Polymer Division) filed Rebate claims in incorrect format under Rule 19 instead of as required under Rule 18. The same was re-filed correctly but department held that the subsequent filing was time barred. The Hon’ble Court held that the intention of claiming rebate was clear and first application should have been treated by the department as rebate application. Whatever defect arose from the incorrect filing could have been rectified. In such situations, re-submission should be seen as a continuous attempt and therefore in the matter department was directed to examine the rebate claims of the petitioner on merits. Page 5 of 29

5. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Rajasthan in Jaipur dated 24.04.2016 in the matter of Balakrishna Industries Ltd. EXCIA No.17/2015

5.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble Court where the Hon’ble Court dismissed the Departmental appeal.

5.2 The issue pertains to violation of provisions of Advance License/ Authorization as provided under Foreign Trade Policy 2004-09 and procedure prescribed under Notification No. 44/2001-CE (NT) dated 26.06.2001. The procedure required that an assessee availing Advance license/Authorization scheme procure raw materials duty free, but in the present case it was found that goods were procured on payment of duty and CENVAT credit was availed subsequently.

5.3 M/s Balakrishna Industries Ltd., the assessee obtained invalidation letters from the DGFT in favour of its suppliers for duty free supply of raw materials. But the assessee procured the goods on payment of Central Excise duty and availed CENVAT credit. This appeared to be in contravention of FTP and also of Notification No. 44/2001-CE (NT) dated 26.06.2001, as the scheme did not permit payment of duty by the supplier manufacturer.

5.4 Further, the supplier of the raw materials also supplied their goods at lower rate against the invalidated authorization (than the rate without invalidation). In this way, they facilitated M/s BKI to take CENVAT credit of duty paid which was in fact part of assessable value.

5.5 After Demand was confirmed assessee went to CESTAT which vide final order dated 23.07.2014 allowed the appeal of the party. Departments’ appeal before the Hon’ble High Court of Rajasthan was dismissed observing that the same issue was decided by the Bombay High Court in CCE, Thane 1 vs OLEFINE Organic Pvt. Ltd which attained finality when the Department’s appeal was dismissed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court.

6. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Delhi dated 22.08.2016 in the case of Sun Pharmaceutical Industries Ltd. W(C) No. 7120/2001

6.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court where the Hon’ble Court condoned the time bar which is provided in Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 for applying for rebate in view of Gujarat High Court’s order in the matter of Choice Laboratories where the Hon’ble Court inter alia held that “Petitioners had bonafide filed their appeal before a forum which lacked jurisdiction.

6.2 The issue examined in the order is as follows, M/s Sun Pharmaceutical Industries Ltd. filed a rebate claim which was rejected by the jurisdictional Deputy Commissioner on the grounds that the time limit for filing rebate in terms of Rule 12 (1) (a) of the Central Excise Rules, 1944, has been prescribed with reference to Section 11 B of the Central Excise Act, 1944, under condition no. (iv) of the notification no. 41/94-CE (NT) dated 22.09.1994, issued under said Rule 12 (1). The limitation period of 6 months for filing rebate as prescribed under said

Section 11 B was absolute and the Act does not have any provision for relaxation to Rules or notification which can transcend, modify or abbreviate the provision of the Act.

6.3 The assessee filed an appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) against the said OIO. The Commissioner (Appeals) rejected the appeal. The assessee then filed a Revision Application against he said OIA. The JS (RA) rejected the application.

6.4 The assessee then filed a writ petition before the Delhi High Court. The High Court vide order dated 22.08.2016 allowed the appeal of the assessee by condoning the time bar which is provided in Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 for applying for rebate. The decision of the Hon’ble Court has been accepted by the Department as the point of law has already been decided by the Gujarat High Court in Choice Laboratories where it was held as follows,

“In that view of the matter, it can be stated that the petitioners were prosecuting the remedy before a wrong forum though under bona fide belief. Surely, the time spent in pursuing such remedy cannot be ignored while considering the question of limitation or delay caused in filing the revision application. In the revisional order, we do not find any mention or reference to such proceedings and the detail affidavit on behalf of the petitioners explaining the grounds why the revision was not filed immediately upon availability of the appellate order. As per the Limitation Act, there is a clear distinction between the delay which can be condoned upon sufficient cause being shown and the period which should be excluded for considering limitation. The time spent in prosecuting remedy before a wrong forum under bona fide belief would fall under exclusion clause as per Section 14 of the Limitation Act. Particularly, when the Tribunal directed its registry to return the papers for presentation before appropriate forum and the case of the petitioners is that such documents were not supplied, the entire issue has to be looked from the angle of the petitioners. Petitioners had bona fide filed their appeal before a forum which lacked jurisdiction.”

This view has been reiterated by the Bombay High Court in EPCOS India case also.

7. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat dated 01.10.2015 in the case of M/s Thakkar Tobacco Products Pvt. Ltd in Tax Appeal No. 619 of 2015

7.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat where the Hon’ble Court dismissed the departmental appeal on the question of law, whether manufacturer has the option of suo-moto abatement of duty in the event of closure of factory for a continuous period of 15 days or more without first depositing the duty in terms of rule 10 of Pan Masala Packing Machines (Capacity Determination and Collection of Duty) Rules, 2008, on the following grounds,

a) As per provisions of the Central Excise Act, 1944 and the PMPM Rules abatement is to be granted and the statute does not prescribe any order of abatement to be passed by the any authority such as DC/AC.

b) In the erstwhile Central Excise Rules, 1944, there was an express provision which provides for claim of abatement would be allowed by an order passed by the Commissioner of Central Excise. When the intention of the government is that amount is to be refunded in as specific manner, then an express provision is provided. However the impugned rule does not make any such provision.

c) The Board Instruction from F.No.267/16/2009-CX-8 dated 12.03.2009 is not applicable in the present case as Rule of PMPM rules does not speak of any order of abatement.

8. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Karnataka at Bangalore dated 09.04.2015 in the case of M/s PNB Metlife India Insurance Company Ltd., Bangalore.

8.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Karnataka. The issue examined in the order was, whether Reinsurance is an input service which is used for providing output service, namely, Insurance and whether CENVAT Credit taken on re-insurance service is admissible. Hon’ble High Court held that re-insurance is a statutory obligation and the same is co-terminus with the Insurance Policy. Issuance of insurance policy by insurer, and then taking of re-insurance by it, is a continuous process. Re-insurance is therefore an input service.

9. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Madras dated 20.03.2015 in CMA 828 of 2008 in respect of M/s SESCOT Sheet Metal Works Ltd.

9.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Madras. The issue examined by the Hon’ble Court was whether unjust-enrichment would apply to State Government undertaking which applied for refund under Notification No. 111/ 88-CE dated 1.3.88. Hon’ble Supreme Court in Mafatlal Industries case referred as [2002-TIOL-54-SC-CX-CB] held that the doctrine of unjust enrichment will not apply to the State, as the State represents the people of the country. Relying on the same Hon’ble High Court observed that department itself accepted that party is a State funded, State controlled and State monitored organisation supplying goods to Civil Supplies Corporation, which is another organ of the State. Such goods are used in relation to Public Distribution System. Hon’ble High Court therefore allowed the party’s appeal.

10. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat dated 28.01.2016 in the case of M/s Ketan Pottery Works & Ors in Special Civil Application 13882 13883/2015 [2016-TIOL-388-HC-AHM-CX]

10.1 Department has accepted the decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in the case of M/s Ketan Pottery Works & Ors in Special Civil Application 13882 13883/2015 where the Hon’ble High Court held that the phrase “and Nepal” appearing in Explanation Clause (G) to SSI Notification No.8 of 2003 is unconstitutional with effect from 01.03.2012. Page 8 of 29

10.2 The issue involved was that, under SSI Exemption Notification No. 8/2003 dated 01.03.03, Explanation (G) provided that clearances for home consumption shall include clearances for export to Bhutan and Nepal. Revision of Treaty between India and Nepal made exports to Nepal at par with export to any other country effective from 01.03.12. The term "clearances for home consumption", which included clearances for export to Nepal and Bhutan ought to have been changed by deleting reference to exports to Nepal. However the said notification was not amended due to oversight. The Hon’ble Court held that this will be plainly discriminatory and hence declared the portion "and Nepal" appearing in Explanation Clause (G) to SSI Notification No.8 of 2003 unconstitutional with effect from 01.03.2012.

11. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Rajasthan dated 23.04.2016 in the matter of Barijoriwala’s Rolling Mills Pvt. Ltd in DB CWP No. 2/2014 [2016-TIOL-3184-HC-RAJ-CX]

11.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of Hon’ble High Court where the Hon’ble High Court lowered the requirement of pre-deposit to 15 per cent of duty or penalty as the case may be, from 25 per cent as was ordered by the CESTAT as the Hon’ble High Court had pronounced same judgment in several other cases.

11.2 The CWP filed by the assessee challenged the CESTAT’s direction to pre-deposit 50% of the duty confirmed in terms of second proviso to Sec 35F of CEA 1944. The Hon’ble High Court directed the assessee to deposit 15% of demand to restore the appeals before CESTAT in light of the fact that Section 35 A of CEA, 1944 was amended by Finance Act 2014 stipulating payment of 7.5% and 10% of duty as pre-deposit for the first and subsequent appeal

PART II

1. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Delhi dated 17.09.2015 in the matter of Flevel International vs Commissioner of Central Excise [2015-TIOL-2230-HC-DEL-CX]

1.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court of Delhi in the matter of Flevel International vs Commissioner of Central Excise [2015-TIOL-2230-HC-DEL-CX] where the Hon’ble Court set aside the order of the CESTAT by inter alia holding that the Department did not concede to the assessee’s request for cross examination and the Hon’ble Court was satisfied that the impugned majority order of the CESTAT on the issue of clandestine removal of 606 ACs by the Appellant without payment of duty suffers from serious errors and, therefore, cannot be sustained in law.

1.2 In the matter, allegation of clandestine clearances of ACs in guise of compressors from 3 units was investigated from the standpoint of eligibility for exemption under Notification No. 75/87-CE dated 1st March 1987. The Hon’ble High Court held that no serious attempts were made to secure presence of witnesses in adjudication proceedings. And, in cases of clandestine removal, a certain standard is expected of the Department before a finding can be reached against an Assessee. No evidence gathered to show procurement of basic raw material for alleged manufacture.

2. Decision of the High Court of Allahabad dated 08.12.2015 in the matter of CCE, Lucknow vs VK Tulsian in Central Excise Appeal No. 13 of 2015 [2016-TIOL-88-HC-ALL-CX]

2.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court of Allahabad in the matter of CCE, Lucknow vs XYZ in Central Excise Appeal No. 13 of 2015 inter alia holding that the activities of V.K Tulsian is in the nature of money laundering and not specified under rule 26 and 27 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 so penalty under the said rules would not be attracted.

2.2 On the matter imposition of penalty under rule 26 & 27 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 on the CA, Sh. VK Tulsian who was alleged to have abetted in evasion of excise duty by issuing a false certificate for the cash seized from gutka manufacturer. The Hon’ble Court held that respondent cannot be said to have acted in a manner so as to hold him an abetter in relation to the commission of any offence as described under Rule 26. Therefore no substantial question of law was involved.

3 Decision of the High Court of Bombay dated 01.02.2016 in the matter of M/s SV Jiwani in Central Excise Appeal No. 252/2014 [2016-TIOL-503-HC-MUM-ST]

3.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in the case of M/s SV Jiwani in Central Excise Appeal No. 252/2014 where the Hon’ble High Court had inter alia held on the question framed, whether input service credit could have been availed without exercising the options provided in Rule 2A of the Service Tax (Determination of Values) Rules, 2006 or whether CENVAT credit can be claimed after discharging the liability in full, that having paid the service tax in full, Revenue is not incurring any loss of revenue, hence the Court should not undertake an academic exercise.

3.2 In the matter the issue that was examined by the Hon’ble Court was that, whether input service credit could have been availed without exercising the options provided in Rule 2A of the Service Tax (Determination of Values) Rules, 2006 after having discharged the tax liability in full. It was held by the Hon’ble Court that that having paid the service tax in full, Revenue has not incurred any loss of revenue hence Court should not undertake an academic exercise.

4. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat dated 28.01.2016 in the matter of Commissioner, Central Excise and Service Tax versus M/s Inducto Steel Ltd

4.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in the matter of Commissioner, Central Excise and Service Tax versus M/S.Inducto Steel Ltd in Tax Appeal No. 126/2016 where the Hon’ble High Court while relying upon the decision of the Gujarat High Court in Krishna Processors vs. Union of India, which was subsequently upheld by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in its judgment in Shree Bhagwati Rolling Mills dated 24.11.2015 dismissed the tax appeal of the Department.

4.2 The matter pertained to suppression of annual capacity of furnace by M/s Inducto Steel Ltd engaged in the manufacturing of MS Ingots which were notified under Section 3A of the Central Excise Act, 1944 vide Notification No. 30/1997 dated 01.08.1997.

5. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Madras dated 07.10.2015 in Tamil Nadu Co-op. Textile Processing Mills Ltd. CMA No. 3557/2006

5.1 Department has accepted the decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Madras in CMA No. 3557/2006 in the case of M/s Tamil Nadu Co-op Textile Processing Mills Ltd., where the Hon’ble High Court allowed the party’s appeal in the matter involving whether demand for extended period under section 11A of the Central Excise Act, 1944 is maintainable on the grounds of suppression of facts etc. by pronouncing an order whereby the demand for duty was struck down on limitation grounds.

5.2 The Hon’ble High Court of Madras allowed the party’s appeal inter alia on the grounds that though the party was not allowed to process and clear power loom fabrics without payment of duty the percentage of such clearances was a mere 3.3% of the total clearances and the party was not aware of such fabrics being power loom i.e. delivery challans did not mention it.

6. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat dated 29.01.2016 in the case of Rivaa Textiles Industries Ltd. CA 629/2015 and TA No.933/2006

6.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in the case of M/s Rivaa Textiles Industries Ltd. in Civil Application (OJ) 629/2015 in Tax Appeal No. 933/2006 where the Hon’ble High Court vide order dated 13.01.2015 in Tax Appeal No. 933 of 2006 dismissed the appeal of the department and also dismissed the Review Petition with the observation that considering the facts and circumstances and the reasons recorded in the earlier judgment no valid ground is made our for review.

6.2 It was examined whether demand for extended period under section 11 A of the Central Excise Act, 1944 is maintainable when from the same investigation already a separate demand for separate period has been raised. Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat dismissed department’s appeal relying on ratio of decision of Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Nizam Sugar Factory [2006 (197) ELT 465 (SC)].

7. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Madhya Pradesh (Indore Bench) dated 09.05.2016 in the matter of Anant Commodities Pvt. Ltd. & others R.P. No. 131/2016 (arising out of CEA No. 11/2010)

7.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Madhya Pradesh where the Hon’ble High Court dismissed the department appeal on monetary limits.
7.2 In the case, assessees filed refund claim in terms of Notification No 41/2007 in respect of Service tax paid on services utilised by them for export of goods. Refund was rejected on few services on the ground that they are not covered under Notification No 41/2007.

Commissioner (Appeal) allowed the party’s appeal and observed that conditions mentioned in the said notification have been fulfilled. On appeal, Hon’ble CESTAT dismissed Department’s Appeal. On further appeal before the Hon’ble MP High Court at Indore, the appeals were disposed of on monetary limit.

8. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Delhi dated 02.12.2015 in the case of M/s Vishnu & Co. Pvt. Ltd & Others in CEAC 62/2014 with 73-90/2014.

8.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Delhi where the Hon’ble High Court dismissed the departmental appeal holding that there is no substantial question of law involved.

8.2 In the case, the assessee was engaged in the manufacturer of ‘Vimal’ Gutkha/ Pan Masala. DGCEI issued two SCNs alleging suppression of production and clandestine removal. Adjudicating authority confirmed the said demands. On party’s appeal, CESTAT confirmed demand, interest & penalty in respect of one order, setting aside the other order observing inter alia that case was based on ambiguous records maintained by transporters and oral statements of employees of transporters. Therefore there was no linkage showing that goods transported were booked by VPCL and were of Vimal brand gutka and further statements were also retracted in cross examination. Further it was held that clandestine removal cannot be proved on the basis of third party records without any positive evidence to link them to VCPL. Testing was done on a small quantity of product which is unsafe to be relied upon to establish the identity of productand no buyers were identified. On further appeal by the Department before the Hon’ble High Court, the same was dismissed as there was no substantial question of law and also that view taken by CESTAT is based on a thorough analysis of the evidence on record and is a plausible one.

9. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Allahabad dated 20.01.2016 in the case of Murari Lal Harish Chand Jaiswal CEA No. 203/2012 [2016 (333) E.L.T. 385 (All.) + Order of HC]

9.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court where the Hon’ble High Court dismissed the departmental appeal holding that on the issue there is no substantial question of law involved.

9.2 The issue is about clandestine removal of tobacco products without maintaining the statutory records. Commissioner confirmed demand of Rs.4.96 crore with equal penalty and penalty on directors. On appeal, CESTAT set aside the order. Department’s appeal was dismissed by the Hon’ble High Court as no substantial question of law arose for consideration.

10. (a) Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Rajasthan in the matter of Barijoriwala’s Rolling Mills Pvt. Ltd in DB CWP No. 2/2014

(b) Decision of the Hon’be High Court of Rajasthan in the matter M/s M. M. Brothers in DB Excise (ST) Appeal No. 7555/2015 [2016-TIOL-3184-HC-RAJ-CX]

10.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of Hon’ble High Court where the Hon’ble High Court lowered the requirement of pre-deposit to 15 per cent of duty or penalty as the case may be, from 25 per cent as was ordered by the CESTAT as the Hon’ble High Court had pronounced same judgment in several other cases.

10.2 The CWP filed by the assessee challenged the CESTAT’s direction to pre-deposit 50% of the duty confirmed in terms of second proviso to Sec 35F of CEA 1944. The Hon’ble High Court directed the assessee to deposit 15% of demand to restore the appeals before CESTAT in light of

the fact that Section 35 A of Central Excise Act, 1944 was amended by Finance Act 2014 stipulating payment of 7.5% and 10% of duty as pre-deposit for the first and subsequent appeal.

11. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Rajasthan dated 14.09.2016 in the matter of Dinesh Fragrance Civil Review Petition 133/2016 in CWP No.3243/2015

11.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Rajasthan where the Hon’ble High Court allowed the appeal of the assessee upholding the maximum speed of the machine as 700 pouch packing per minute and further directed the department to re determine the duty in accordance with the findings arrived at by the Hon’ble Court.

11.2 Review Petition was filed by the Department. The Hon’ble High Court dismissed the petition as no facts were overlooked while passing order dated 12.04.16. The issue related to production of Pan Masala Pouches with the help of pouch packing machine and paying duty as per Notification No.42/2007-CE dated 01.07.2008 till the issuance of amending Notification No.5/2015-CE & 06/2015-CE both dated 01.03.2015. Department was directed to re-determine the duty based on the packing speed of the machines. Writ Petition was allowed against the Assistant Commissioner’s order determining the monthly duty liability.

12. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Punjab & Haryana dated 12.08.2016 in the case of Microtek Forgings CEA No. 32/2016 [2016-TIOL-1866-HC-P&H-CX].

12.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court where the Hon’ble Court replying on the judgment of the Apex Court in the matters of ‘Maruti Suzuki India Ltd. vs. CCE Delhi, 2014(307) ELT 625(SC) and Super Synotex (India) Ltd. vs. CCE Jaipur, 2014 (301) ELT 273 dismissed the departmental appeal.

12.2 In the case, CESTAT relying on Apex Court decision in the case of ‘Maruti Suzuki India Ltd. vs. CCE Delhi, 2014(307) ELT 625(SC) and Super Synotex (India) Ltd. vs. CCE Jaipur, 2014 (301) ELT 273 had held that amount of sales tax concession retained by the respondent is required to be added in the assessable for levy of Central Excise Duty. However CESTAT held that extended period of limitation would not apply. Deciding the departmental appeal, High Court has held that CESTAT in its order has observed that under Circular dated 30.06.2000 CBEC had clarified that such amount retained by the assessee is not required to be added to the assessable value. This view was negated by Apex court in the above said orders. Since there was no clarity on the issue, the assessee cannot be said to be at fault, hence extended period would not be available to raise the demand. Page 14 of 29

13. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Bombay dated 03.11.2014 in WP No. 2920/2014 in the case of JCB India Ltd vs UOI & Ors and WP No. 9431/2014 in the case of Sandvik Asia Pvt. Ltd vs UOI.

13.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court where the Hon’ble Court disposed of the Writ Petitions by relying on its earlier decisions dated 01.09.2014 in case of M/s Alfa Laval (India) Ltd and M/s Sandvik Asia Pvt. Ltd.
13.2 The issue that was examined was whether prior to 22.11.2014, statutory provisions did not prevent the party to first claim the benefit of AIR Drawback and thereafter claim Brand Rate Drawback.

14. Decision of Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat dated 02.12.2014 in the department’s Tax Appeal No. 1274/2014 in the case of M/s Fact Paper Mill Ltd, Morhi.

14.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat dated 02.12.2014 in the department’s Tax Appeal No. 1274/2014 in the case of M/s Fact Paper Mill Ltd, Morhi, where the Hon’ble High Court dismissed the Departmental Appeal holding that no question of law arose on the matter.

14.2 On the issue, the assessee was manufactures of Paper and Paper Board. Case was booked on allegations of clandestine removal. Demand was confirmed on basis of confessional statement. CESTAT allowed party’s appeal observing that confessional statements had been retracted and the retraction was not dealt with by the adjudicating authority. Further, the installed capacity would not justify any production much in excess of declared production. Departmental went in Appeal before the Hon’ble High Court which held that no question of law arises in the case and therefore dismissed the appeal.

15. Order of Allahabad High Court dated 11.09.2014 passed in Central Excise Appeal No. 276/2006 in the case of Commissioner of Customs & Central Excise, Noida vs M/s Silver Oak Laboratories Pvt. & Ors

15.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble Allahabad High Court dated 11.09.2014 passed in Central Excise Appeal No. 276/2006 in the case of Commissioner of Customs & Central Excise, Noida vs M/s Silver Oak Laboratories Pvt. & Ors where the Hon’ble High Court dismissed the Departmental Appeal holding that the submission of the learned counsel of the department is erroneous and that rule 57E of the Central Excise rules, 1944 is not applicable in the instant case.

15.2 In the matter the appellant manufactures cosmetic preparations. The Settlement Commission while deciding the application filed under section 127 B of the Customs Act, 1962 ordered for payment of differential CVD and also directed that DRI shall issue a certificate

indicating payment of such differential amount basing on which the appellant could avail CENVAT credit thereof. The legality of CENVAT credit availed, based on the certificate issued by DRI, was questioned by Noida Commissionerate. CESTAT allowed the credit. HC dismissed the Department’s appeal observing that the certificate issued by DRI in consequence of order of Settlement Commission is perfectly legal and held that Rule 57E of CENVAT Credit Rule was not applicable in the instant Case.

16. Decision of Allahabad High Court dated 13.01.2014 in Central Excise Appeal Defective No. 1/2015 in the case of Commissioner of Central Excise, Meerut vs M/s Paramount Pesticides Ltd.

16.1 Department has accepted the decision of the Hon’ble Allahabad High Court dated 13.01.2014 in Central Excise Appeal Defective No. 1/2015 in the case of Commissioner of Central Excise, Meerut vs M/s Paramount Pesticides Ltd., where the Hon’ble High Court held that they did not find any reason to interfere in the impugned order dated 06.03.2014 passed by the Appellate Tribunal. It further held that the appeal fails and it is dismissed with the observation that the Appellate Tribunal will endeavour to decide the matter finally after hearing all the parties concerned within four months from the date of production of certified copy of this order.

16.2 In the case assessee is engaged in manufacture of pesticides. The issue involved was whether after the insertion of third proviso in Section 35C(2A) of Central Excise Act, 1944 w.e.f 10.5.2013, the Tribunal was correct in granting stay beyond specified maximum time limit prescribed in the section. The Central Excise duty was not deposited by the assessee within the prescribed time limit as per Rule 8(3A) of the Central Excise Rule, 2002 the remaining duty should have been paid within the extended one month time limit which the party failed to do. By order in original dated 17.5.2012 demand was confirmed, against which the party filed an appeal in the Tribunal. Tribunal granted stay and also extended it until further orders. Hon’ble HC dismissed the departmental appeal observing, that in the matter there was no reason to interfere.

17. Order of the Hon’ble Bombay High Court order dated 11.03.2015 in CEA No. 65/2005 in the case of Commissioner of Central Excise, Thane-II vs Bright Brothers.

17.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble Bombay High Court order dated 11.03.2015 in CEA No. 65/2005 in the case of Commissioner of Central Excise, Thane-II vs Bright Brothers where the Hon’ble High Court has upheld the order of Tribunal holding that penalty under section 11AC could not have been imposed as necessary ingredients for section 11 AC are missing and also adjudication order fails to give a categorical finding in reference to the ingredients of section 11AC.

17.2 In the matter assessee is manufacturer of Plastic moulded components of motor vehicle and allegedly undervalued the goods. Demand was confirmed and penalty imposed under section 11AC observing that there were two conflicting orders of the Tribunal and the matter was resolved by a Larger Bench in case of Mutual Industries Ltd. v. CCE [2000 (117) E.L.T. 578 (Tri.)] where it was held that so long as the mould is being used in the manufacture of the finished product it contributes certain value to be added to the value of finished products.

This additional value must necessarily go in assessing the duty payable on the finished product under Excise Law. On appeal by the assessee, Tribunal set aside the penalty imposed under section 11AC and remanded the case for re-quantification of duty. Department contested setting aside of penalty. HC observed that the penalty provisions may be termed as mandatory, but the imposition itself has to precede the satisfaction in terms of Section 11AC. Once there was a scope for entertaining a doubt, and there is no wilful mis-statement or suppression of facts, then, penalty is not called for as the Tribunal did not find anything on record, barring a statement, to conclude that this was a case of suppression.

18. Decision of Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat’s order dated 09.12.2014 in the Tax Appeal No. 1230/2014 in the case of Commissioner of Central Excise and Customs, Rajkot vs M/s Major Cement Pvt. Ltd.

18.1 Department has accepted the decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat’s order dated 09.12.2014 in the Tax Appeal No. 1230/2014 in the case of Commissioner of Central Excise and Customs, Rajkot vs M/s Major Cement Pvt Ltd where the Hon’ble High Court dismissed the tax appeals of the department and upheld the findings of the tribunal on the grounds that the test report dated 07.05.2008 were unreliable and the statements of the persons relied upon by the department should have been allowed to be cross examined.

18.2 In the case SCN issued on wrong availment of CENVAT Credit, without receipt of ‘pet coke’, on basis of fabricated invoices. SCN indicated drawal of samples on 26.04.08 but this reference was dropped in the corrigendum issued to the SCN. Department relied on report of samples drawn on 03.05.08 from a private lab to suggest that the goods did not confirm to the specification of pet coke. Tribunal held that Samples were not correctly drawn and thus the test report was not reliable. Further the cross examination of the persons whose statements were relied were not allowed by the Department. High Court accepted CESTAT judgement and dismissed departmental appeal.

19. Decision of Delhi High Court dated 28.01.2015 passed in CEAC No. 6/2015 in the case of Commissioner of Central Excise, Delhi-1 vs Kuber Tobacco Products (P) Ltd & Ors

19.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble Delhi High Court dated 28.01.2015 passed in CEAC No. 6/2015 in the case of Commissioner of Central Excise, Delhi-1 vs Kuber Tobacco Products (P) Ltd & Ors where the Hon’ble High Court held that the Department’s appeal had no question of law involved and was meritless and so being infructuous was dismissed.

19.2 Issue relates to clandestine manufacture and clearance of tobacco products. Commissioner (Appeal) allowed assessee’s appeal observing that revenue had failed to establish any nexus between the ownership of the brand and the manufacturing unit. CESTAT upheld the appellate order observing that certain persons have surfaced during investigation and have claimed the ownership of the said goods. Departmental appeal was dismissed by the High court.

20. Decision of the Delhi High Court dated 25.03.2015 passed in CEAC No. 13/2015 in the case of M/s Dalmia Bharat Sugar and Industries Ltd. vs Commissioner of Central Excise & Service Tax, LTU, New Delhi

20.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court where the Hon’ble High Court allowed the appeal of the assessee in CEAC No. 13/2015 by setting aside the order of the CESTAT and directing the CESTAT to decide the case on merits. In the matter, CESTAT vide stay order No. 50233/2015-EX (DB) dated 20.01.2015 directed the assessee to deposit an amount of Rs 5 crore for compliance with the provision of Section 35F within a period of 8 weeks.

20.2 Commissioner confirmed the demand for non-maintenance of separate accounts of input services used in or in relation to manufacture of dutiable and exempted goods. CESTAT directed the assessee to pre-deposit within 8 weeks. Assessee filed appeal in High Court which was set aside with direction to CESTAT to decide the case on merits.

21. Decision of Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat dated 26.02.2015 in Tax Appeal No. 761 of 2007 in the matter of M/s Bharat Bhai Ajitrai Doshi Director of M/s Magalam Industries Ltd vs CCE, Bharuch

21.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble Court where it was held that the tax appeal is not maintainable and both the CESTAT and the Hon’ble High Court set aside the confiscation under section 111(p) of the Customs Act, 1962 for the reason that notification No. 205/84 was amended declaring “synthetic yarn” as notified goods under section 11B of Chapter IV A of the Customs Act, 1962 vide Notification No. 5/93-Cus (NS) dated 15.1.1993.

21.2 In the case, POY was purchased through Advance intermediate transferable licence under the cover of various DEEC books and bills of entry and the said yarn was allegedly sold in the open market without fulfilling the export obligations. CESTAT opined that confiscation under section 111(p) of the Customs Act, 1962 cannot be upheld since notification no. 205/84 was amended declaring "synthetic yarn" as notified goods under Section 11 (B) of Chapter IVA of the Act ibid vide Notification no. 5/93-Cus (NS) dated 15.01.1993. Hence penalty under Section 112 of the Customs Act, 1962 as imposed on the appellant cannot be upheld as per the decision in the case of S.S. Gupta vs. CC [2001 (132)ELT.441 (Tri.Del)] and accordingly allowed the appeal filed by the party. The Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in the matter dismissed the appeal of the department as not maintainable.

22. Decision of Bombay High Court dated 30.03.2015 in the case of M/s Kaushal Silk Mills Pvt. Ltd.

22.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble Bombay High Court dated 30.03.2015 in the case of M/s Kaushal Silk Mills Pvt. Ltd where the Hon’ble High Court held that since in the matter no substantial question of law was involved so no interference in the order of the CESTAT was warranted.

22.2 In the case the price of the grey fabrics were inflated by supplying the bills of various assessees and Grey fabric suppliers who were found to be fake or non-existent. This inflated grey price resulted in availment of excess deemed credit by the processor who in turn passed on the undue benefit to the exporters. In appeal filed by the party, CESTAT held that the processing units did not have the knowledge of the over invoicing of the grey fabrics and the allegation of suppression against them is not sustainable and the extended period of limitation cannot be invoked. Hon’ble High court, deciding the departmental appeal, held that the view taken by the learned Tribunal is neither impossible nor perverse. Since in the matter no substantial question of law arose so the appeal was dismissed.

23. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat dated 23.03.2015 in Tax Appeal No. 816 of 2008 in the matter of M/s Videocon Industries Ltd. Videocon House, Chavaj, Bharuch

23.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in Tax Appeal No. 816 of 2008 in the matter of M/s Videocon Industries Ltd. Videocon House, Chavaj, Bharuch where the Hon’ble High Court rejected tax appeal No. 816/2008 and thereby confirmed CESTAT order dated 23.10.2007.

23.2 The issue involved was remission of duty on destruction of final product and credit taken on inputs used in manufacture of such final product. Hon’ble High Court dismissed the departmental appeal relying on its earlier decision in CCE Ahmedabad-II vs Intas Pharmaceuticals Limited [2013(289) ELT 256 (Guj). The Hon’ble Court held that remission application was filed on 09.05.2000, whereas Rule 3(5C) came into force w.e.f 7.9.2007.

24. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Rajasthan, Jaipur dated 26.02.2015 in the matter of M/s Shankar Products, behind factory No. 667, Road No. 9 (F) (2), VKI Area, Jaipur.

24.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court of Rajasthan, Jaipur in the matter of M/s Shankar Products, behind factory No. 667, Road No. 9 (F) (2), VKI Area, Jaipur where the Hon’ble High Court dismissed the appeal of the department and upheld the decision of CESTAT where the CESTAT held that where department had knowledge and had issued an earlier notice on the similar ground, it cannot be said that there was any suppression.

24.2 Department issued a SCN dated 28.08.08 demanding duty for the period April 2004 to June 2008 invoking extended period on ground that the process undertaken by the appellant amounts to manufacture and they had suppressed the relevant facts from the department. On the basis of the same facts another SCN for subsequent period from July 2008 to 4.12.2008 was issued on 6.7.2010 again invoking the extended period, which in view of the Apex Court’s judgement in the case of Nizam Sugar Factory (supra) is not permissible. High Court, Rajasthan dismissed the departmental appeal.

25. Decision of the Delhi High Court dated 13.04.2015 in the matter of CEAC No. 2/2015 in the matter of Commissioner of Central Excise, Delhi-I vs M/s Ambeecee Consolidated Enterprises (India) Pvt Ltd & Ors

25.1 Department has accepted the order of the Delhi High Court dated 13.04.2015 in the matter of CEAC No. 2/2015 in the matter of Commissioner of Central Excise, Delhi-I vs M/s Ambeecee Consolidated Enterprises (India) Pvt Ltd & Ors where the Hon’ble High Court held that in the matter no substantial question of law was involved.

25.2 Assessee was manufacturer of SS Ingots. Unaccounted stock of finished goods was found in the factory. SCN was issued and demand was confirmed. In assessee’s appeal CESTAT followed its earlier decision in case of D.P. Industries, who used to convert these clandestinely removed SS Ingots into flats and also cleared such flats clandestinely. The evidences in case of assessee and DP Industries were same. Hon’ble High Court dismissed the departmental appeal observing that Revenue’s grievance concerns only factual findings based upon appreciation of evidence. It is not disputed that with respect to clandestine removal and the liability sought to be imposed upon the assessee, the evidence between the two units i.e. the assessee and D.P. Industries was common.

26. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat dated 20.07.2015 in Tax Appeal No. 381 of 2015 in the matter of CCE, Rajkot vs M/s Tata Chemicals Ltd., Jamnagar

26.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in Tax Appeal No. 381 of 2015 in the matter of CCE, Rajkot vs M/s Tata Chemicals Ltd., Jamnagar where the Hon’ble High Court dismissed the departmental appeal relying on the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Ranbaxy Pharmaceuticals vs Union of India, (2011) 10 SCC 292.

26.2 In the matter, refund claims of the assessee were rejected by the AC on the grounds that D-3 intimations were not proper. CEGAT in its order dated 13.08.2003 ordered that the D-3 intimations were proper and provisions of Rule 173-L were met, hence there was no deficiency on the part of the assessee. Order of CESTAT was accepted by the department and refund was granted. Assessee claimed interest of Rs. 74 Lakhs from date of filing of refund claim. Tribunal relied upon decision of Apex Court in case of Ranbaxy Pharmaceuticals Limited v. Union of India [2011-TIOL-105-SC-CX] where it has been held that the law to pay the interest commences from the date of expiry of three months from the date of receipt of application and not from the decision. Departmental appeal was therefore dismissed.

27. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court dated 03.09.2014 in the matter of M/s Bajrang Castings Pvt. Ltd and five others in Tax Appeal No. 824 of 2014

27.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court dated 03.09.2014 in the matter of M/s Bajrang Castings Pvt. Ltd and five others in Tax Appeal No. 824 of 2014 where the Hon’ble High Court held that in the matter that since there was no question of law involved, interference by the Court in the decision of the CESTAT was not warranted.

27.2 In the matter, allegation was availment of CENVAT credit on invoices without actually receiving the goods. Also that non-CENVATable bazar scrap was used in manufacture of MS Ingots. Such irregular credit was used for payment of licit clearances to avoid payment of duty from PLA. CESTAT ordered that demands were based upon the statements of transporters or drivers of the trucks which were not corroborated by any evidence. No investigation was conducted at consignors’ place or at the place where the said goods are alleged to have been supplied. In the absence of cogent evidence the demand is not sustainable. Deciding departmental appeal, High Court observed that there is no perversity in the findings recorded by CESTAT and no substantial question of law arise.

28. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Allahabad in CEA No. 181 of 2015 in the matter of CCE Kanpur vs M/s Rajat Industries.

28.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court of Allahabad in CEA No. 181 of 2015 in the matter of CCE Kanpur vs M/s Rajat Industries where the Hon’ble High Court dismissed the appeal of the department holding that no substantial question of law was involved.

28.2 In the matter, party was working under Pan Masala packing machines (capacity determination and collection of duty rules, 2008). It filed an abatement claim in terms of rule 10 of PMPM Rules for the period when pouch packing machines remained suspended. Claim sanctioned. Department contended that as per rule 10 of PMPM rules and intimation of closure of production is mandatory to be filed at least 3 working days prior to closure of such production, the condition was not met in this case. High Court observed that department after due intimation had reached the premises and had sealed the unit. No substantial question involved, therefore Departmental appeal was dismissed.

29. Decision of Hon’ble High Court of Allahabad dated 25.08.2015 in Central Excise (Defective) Appeal No. 01/2005 in the case of CCE Noida vs M/s Matsushita Television and Audio India Ltd., Noida

29.1 Department has accepted the order of Hon’ble High Court of Allahabad dated 25.08.2015 in Central Excise (Defective) Appeal No. 01/2005 in the case of CCE Noida vs M/s Matsushita Television and Audio India Ltd., Noida where the Hon’ble High Court in the matter involving taking CENVAT credit on photocopy of Bills of Entry the Hon’ble High Court held that the inputs were received in the factory under the cover of a triplicate copy of bill of entry which was subsequently misplaced so upheld the assessees contention.

29.2 In the case, assessee received duty paid goods under triplicate copy of Bill of Entry, which was misplaced. The MODVAT credit was availed on the basis of exchange control copy bill of entry. Department contended as triplicate copy of bill of entry as required under Clause (c) of Sub Rule (3) of Rule 57G could not be subsequently produced by the assessee for defacement, credit was not admissible. Tribunal allowed the credit holding that the said document was verifiable. In departmental appeal HC upheld CESTAT’s decision.

30. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in Tax Appeal No. 363 of 2015 in the matter of CCE, Rajkot vs M/s Reliance Ports & Terminals Ltd., Jamnagar.

30.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in Tax Appeal No. 363 of 2015 in the matter of CCE, Rajkot vs M/s Reliance Ports & Terminals Ltd., Jamnagar where the Hon’ble High Court dismissed the departmental appeal holding that since the questions proposed by the appellant were not subject matter of the show cause notice and also do not arise out of the impugned order of passed by the Tribunal.

30.2 In the matter, CERA pointed irregular availment of CENVAT Credit of service tax paid under section 66A as recipient of "Consulting Engineer" and "Banking Services", etc, which allegedly were not "input services". Credit was also alleged to have been availed on capital goods before their actual installation. Commissioner dropped the demand. Department filed appeal before CESTAT and later the HC. It was held by appellate authority that SCN did put the assessee to show cause as to whether the services are "input services" or whether the capital goods were used for providing "output services". Appeal was dismissed.

31 Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Allahabad dated 11.08.2015 (in Central Excise Appeal No. 662/2012) in the case of Commissioner of Central Excise, Noida vs M/s Damini Printers Pvt. Ltd., Noida.

31.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court of Allahabad dated 11.08.2015 dated 11.08.2015 (in Central Excise Appeal No. 662/2012) in the case of Commissioner of Central Excise, Noida vs M/s Damini Printers Pvt. Ltd., Noida where the Hon’ble High Court dismissed the department’s appeal on monetary limits.

31.2 In the case, Hon’ble High Court of Allahabad dismissed Department’s appeal on the grounds monetary limitations for appeal without expressing any opinion on merits. On this issue SC in the case of Commissioner IT vs Suman Dhamija – 2015(325) ELT 11 (SC) held that the monetary policy is not retrospective. However High Courts of Karnataka and Gujarat have also distinguished the SC decision to the effect that the same applies to IT matters where the policy is with specific to the effect that the same shall not govern the cases filed before the date of said policy – 2014(306)ELT153 (Guj), 2011(268) ELT 344 (Kar).

32. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in the case of M/s Vishnu Pouch Packing Pvt. Ltd in Special Civil Application No. 12154 of 2015

32.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in the case of M/s Vishnu Pouch Packing Pvt. Ltd in Special Civil Application No. 12154 of 2015 where the Hon’ble High Court allowed the Special Civil Application filed by VPPL No. 12154/2015 praying to issue a writ of mandamus or order quashing and setting aside the decisions and directions contained in communication dated 30.06.2015 issued by DGCEI to various units of VPPL and fixed the production capacity of PPMs installed and operated at factory premises for relevant period under rule 5 of PMPM rules.

32.2 In the case, recovery of differential duty (Production based duty on Pan Masala) vide letters and not vide proper SCN invoking recovery under section 11A of CE Act was examined and was held to be a breach of principles of natural justice. Party’s Special Civil Application allowed to the effect that there has been violation of principles of natural justice, quashed the said letters and also allowed the department to initiate action under PMPM Rules and section 11A of the CE Act.

33. Decision of Hon’ble High Court of Allahabad dated 13.10.2015 in Central Excise Appeals No. 251-256 of 2015 in cases (a) CCE, Noida vs M/s Dharampal Satyapal Ltd., (b) CCE, Noida vs Shri Chiranjiv Roy Choudhory., (c) CCE vs Rajiv Kumar (d) CCE, Noida vs Sh. Nareshh Dhir € CCE, Noida vs Sh. J.D. Desai and (f) CCE, Noida vs Sh. Amit Singhai.

33.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Allahabad which held that in the matter no substantial question of law was involved.

33.2 Court dismissed Department’s appeal on the grounds that Tribunal has found that as per the technical literature the pouch packing machine was a duplex machine having single track with innovation that on the same line, at a time, two pouches are cut and filled resulting in higher production and that the duty is per pouch packing machine per month and not on actual number of pouches produced.

34. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in the case of M/s Shree Rama Multi-Tech Limited in Misc. Civil Application (OJ) No. 199/2012 in Tax Appeal No. 896/2011.

34.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in the case of M/s Shree Rama Multi-Tech Limited in Misc. Civil Application (OJ) No. 199/2012 in Tax Appeal No. 896/2011 where the Hon’ble High Court held inter alia that there was no statutory provision permitting the revenue authorities to direct reversal of credit already taken, the question of imposing any condition for reversal while granting remission of duty in terms of rule 21 of the Central Excise rules would certainly not arise.

34.2 Issue was whether reversal of CENVAT Credit is required on the inputs used in manufacturing the final product when such final product was destroyed and remission of duty was also allowed. Court in its order dt 29.08.12 held that there was no scope of reversal of credit taken prior to September 7, 2007 [date of introduction of sub-rule (5C) of rule 3 of CCR] if the finished product becomes unfit for human consumption, unless any condition has been imposed for remission of duty in terms of Rule 21 making it clear that the credit already taken is to be reversed. Italicized/underlined portion of earlier judgement dt 29.08.12 deleted in review petition filed by the department.

35. Decision of Hon’ble Karnataka High Court in CEA No. 33/2014 in the case of Commissioner of Service Tax, Bangalore vs M/s Vodafone Essar South Ltd.

35.1 Department has accepted the order of the Hon’ble Karnataka High Court in CEA No. 33/2014 in the case of Commissioner of Service Tax, Bangalore vs M/s Vodafone Essar South Ltd where the Hon’ble High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department as not maintainable after observing that the question is to be decided by the Apex Court in an appeal to be filed under Section 35 L (b) of the Act and not by it under Section 35G of the Act.

35.2 In the matter, party filed refund claim for the Service tax paid on service provided to a foreign telecom operator to enable the subscribers of the said foreign telecom operator to avail international inbound roaming facility on the basis of Not. No. 36/2007 -ST dated 15.06.2007. The said refund claim was rejected on grounds that ST was paid before the notification coming into being, besides on issues on merits. High court dismissed departmental appeal on grounds of jurisdiction as issue involved interpretation of notification and that appeal shall lie before the Apex court.

36. Decision of Hon’ble High Court of Madras in CMA No. 4050/2008 in the case filed by the Department against CESTAT Final order No. 479/2008 dated 14.05.2008 in the case of M/s Sakthi Sugars Ltd., Appakudal, Bhavani Taluk & Order of the Hon’ble High Court of Madras in CMA No. 1570/2009 in the case filed by the Department against CESTAT Final order No. 802/2007 dated 26.06.2007 in the case of M/s Sakhti Sugars Ltd., Appakudal, Bhavani Taluk.

36.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Madras where the Hon’ble Court disposed the appeal of the department as not maintainable after observing that the question is to be decided by the Apex Court in an appeal to be filed under section 35 L (b) of the Act and not by it under Section 35 G of the Act and thus disposed the case with a liberty to the Department to move before the Supreme Court.

36.2 In the matter, allegation was non-payment of Central Excise duty on molasses, which was captively consumed in the factory, by wrongly claiming exemption under Notification No. 67/95-CE dated 16.03.95 as the molasses was used to manufacture Neutral spirit/ rectified spirit which is non-excisable. Exemption under said Notification is available where final products are dutiable. Hon’ble High Court held that as the issue pertains to rate of duty payable, but for the notification, the appeal should be made to the Hon’ble Supreme Court. Departmental Appeal was therefore dismissed.

37. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Madras dated 21.11.2014 in CMA No. 2424 of 2007 in case of M/s Vadapalani Press.

37.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Madras where the Hon’ble High Court pronounced that the issue under consideration is what will be the rate of duty payable, but for the notification in question and held that this appeal is not maintainable under section 35 G of Central Excise Act and for the foregoing reasons did not go into the merits of the question of law raised for consideration.

37.2 The issue involved allegation of wrong availment of SSI exemption under Notification No. 8/2003-CE dated 01.03.2003 against the clearances made under the guise of FORM H sales. Hon’ble High Court dismissed the departmental appeal since issue involved rate of duty and appeal should at the Hon’ble Supreme Court.

38. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Madras dated 19.12. 2014 in CMA No. 68/2009 in the case Commissioner of Central Excise vs M/s HCL Peripherals
38.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Madras where the Hon’ble High Court held that the issue pertains to rate of duty that is payable by the respondent (HCLP) but for the notification in question relying on the following judgments, namely,

(i) Navin Chemicals Manufacturing and Trading Co. Ltd vs Collector of Customs, 1993 (68) ELT3 (SC).

(ii) Commissioner of Central Excise vs Vadapalani Press (2014-TIOL-2208-HC-MAD-CX)
held that the present appeal is not maintainable and the department is at liberty to file appeal before the Hon’ble Supreme Court.

38.2 In the matter, allegation of classifying the Kiosks under CTH 84710000 of CETA, 1985 and availing exemption benefit as applicable to computers was examined. The dispute is whether Kiosks can be classified under CTH 84710000 assigned for Automatic Data Processing Machine and units thereof and whether Kiosks is eligible for full exemption of duty under Notification No. 23/2004 dated 09.07.2004 or not. As issue pertains to rate of duty or valuation, Hon’ble High Court dismissed departmental appeal with liberty to move the Hon’ble Supreme Court.

39. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Madras dated 28.08.2014 in CMA No. 463/2007 filed by M/s Emkay Alloys (P) Ltd., against the Final order No. 1425/2005, dated 07.10.2005 of the Hon’ble CESTAT, Chennai

39.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Madras where the Hon’ble High Court inter alia held that the appeal is partly allowed by way of remand in terms of the order of the Tribunal dated 16.04.2007 made in Final order No. 410/07 in Appeal No. E/158/2007.

39.2 Issue relates to manufacture of Ingots and Billets of non-alloy steel, for which the party was supposed to pay duty under Compounded Levy Scheme as said goods were notified under that scheme w.e.f 01.08.1997 and excise duty was to be discharged on the basis of Annual Capacity of Production. Two ACP Orders (dated 16.09.1997 and 09.07.1998) were issued fixing the duty payable. Party did not discharge the liability and therefore 6 SCNs were issued for different periods. One SCN was based on ACP Order dated 04.05.1998 and rest five were based on ACP Orders issued on 09.07.1998. Commissioner adjudicated all six cases confirming the duty. On appeal CESTAT upheld the demand.

39.3 Later ACP order dated 16.09.1997 was challenged by the assesse and CESTAT in its final order allowed the appeal by way of remand. Against the CESTAT Order wherein the demand by the department was found to be sustainable in law, appeal was filed in Madras HC. The HC pronounced that the consequent to order passed by the Tribunal, SCN dated 04.05.1998 based on ACP order dated 16.09.1997 will have to be reworked and SCN is required to be issued only after appropriate ACP order is passed. Page 26 of 29

40. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Karnataka dated 01.04.2015 at Bangalore in CEA No. 58/2014 and CEA No. 03-05/2015 in the case filed by the Department against M/s BEML & Others

40.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Karnataka holding that in the matter there is no substantial question of law dismissed the departmental appeal.

40.2 Issue involved was central excise duty liability on goods falling under Chapter 84 w.e.f. 29.04.11 as levied in Finance Act 2011. Assessee paid duty from 01.04.2011, but did not pay duty for the period from 29.04.2010 to 31.03.2011. SCN issued by revenue under extended period which was set aside by the Tribunal since no suppression was involved. Hon’ble High Court dismissed the Departmental appeal as no question of law was involved.

41. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Hyderabad dated 17.06.2015 in CEA No. 41/2015 in the case of M/s Sri. Chaitanya Educational Committee, Poranki, Vijaywada.

41.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Hyderabad where the Hon’ble High Court dismissed the departmental appeal and confirmed the CESTAT order.

41.2 Issue involved was non-payment of service tax on Taxable Service, namely, Commercial Coaching and Training Services. Demand of Rs. 339736617 was confirmed for period 2011-12. Party filed appeal and CESTAT disposed stay application directing for pre-deposit Rs 6 crore. On same issue party was issued another SCN and Apex court directed the party to deposit one third of the confirmed demand excluding the cess and penalty. CESTAT direction for Rs 6 Cr. is just 20% of the duty. Hon’ble High Court held that view taken by Tribunal is a possible view. Order of pre-deposit is made exercising the discretionary powers and same cannot have any precedent value. Departmental appeal was therefore dismissed.

42. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Madras dated 04.06.2015 in CMA No. 3420 & 3421 of 2008 in the case of M/s Dalmia Cements Ltd.

42.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Madras where the Hon’ble High Court relying upon the judgment of High Court of Allahabad in the case of Hero Motors of identical nature stated that the Tribunal’s decision does not require any interference.

42.2 In the matter, assessee availed credit on inputs and capital goods used in creation of power plant. The plant was leased to another company. Department was of the view that such goods were deemed to have been removed and party was liable to pay the amount of credit availed in terms of Rule 3(5) of CENVAT Credit Rules 2004. Also, after leasing out the power plant from 15.03.2005 to 15.03.2006, DCL wrongly availed CENVAT credit as these inputs/ Capital goods/input services were not used in the factory of DCL for manufacture of dutiable final product i.e. Cement. Hon’ble High Court of Allahabad decided against the department as the power plant was leased out and not "sold".

43. Decision of the High Court of Hyderabad dated 01.07.2017 for the state of Telangana and the State of Andhra Pradesh in CEA No. 27 of 2004 in the case of M/s Hetero Drugs Ltd., Bonthapally village, Medak District.

43.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Hyderabad where the Hon’ble High Court held that in the absence of any perversity of fact and based on the submissions made by the learned standing counsel for the Department the impugned Final Order can’t be interfered with. It also held that in the present appeal there was no challenge with respect to the aspect of the limitation and that the appeal is devoid of merits.

43.2 In the matter, assessee imported r/m to manufacture pharmaceutical drugs engaging a CHA. CHA utilised demand drafts issued by different parties to discharge customs duty liability while clearing the goods from the customs bonded warehouse. Party took credit of CVD. The demand of credit availed on basis of forged/fake documents was confirmed. CESTAT set aside the Commissioner’s OIO stating that Hetero Drugs is not responsible for the alleged acts of their CHA and company has availed the credit of CVD which it tendered by the demand draft. CESTAT also led that there was no knowledge on the part of Hetero Drugs Ltd that the Bill Of Entry being sent to them was fabricated. Department’s appeal dismissed by High Court.

44. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Odisha dated 27.07.2015 in WP (C) No. 4494/2010 filed by M/s Scan Sponge Iron Ltd.

44.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Odisha where the Hon’ble High Court disposed of the instant writ petition relying on decision of the same court passed in WP (C) No.29680 of 2011 dated 23.04.2013 in case of M/s Vasundhara Metalliks Pvt.Ltd. which was disposed of in terms of the judgment of the Hon’ble High Court of Odisha dated 13.04.2011 in WP (C) No. 16132 of 2010 in case of M/s Aryan Ispat Ltd., wherein Notification No. 32/2006-CE (NT) dated 30.12.2006 was quashed by the Hon’ble High Court of Odisha and declared Rule 12CC of Central Excise Rules, 2002 and Rule 12AA of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 as ultra vires to Central Excise Act, 1944 and the Constitution of India and also held that the Notification No. 32/2006 issued under the said rule is not sustainable under law.

44.2 The issue involved was that the assessee, namely, M/s Scan Sponge Iron Ltd was engaged in clandestine removal of finished goods from two factory units. The same was detected during a search. The party filed writ petition in the Hon’ble High Court against the confirmed demand. Hon’ble High Court, based on previous judgement in similar case quashed Notification No 32/2006-CE dated 30.12.2006 and declared rule 12 CC of Central Excise Rules 2002 and Rule 12 A of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 as ultra vires to the Central Excise Act 1944.

45. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Madras dated 11.06.2015 in CMA No. 1182/2008 in the case of Commissioner of Central Excise vs M/s Integral Coach Factory

45.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court which upheld the CESTAT’s order No. 1106/2007 dated 03.09.2007 and dismissed the Departmental Appeal.

45.2 In the matter, assessee manufactured steel freight containers and passenger coaches for Indian Railways. They sold ferrous and non-ferrous scrap arising out of manufacture without payment of Excise Duty. Although, CESTAT and Hon’ble High Court passed judgements in favour of the party stating that under Notification No. 89/95-CE dated 18.05.1995 scrap arising in the course of manufacture of exempted goods is exempted from the payment of excise duty, the department contested the claim on the grounds that M/s ICF had cleared the components of coaches and containers to private entities on payment of excise duty, which violated two of the three conditions laid down by Notification No. 62/95 CE dated 16.03.1995. Hon’ble High Court approved the finding of Tribunal that so long as the goods manufactured are exempted goods, waste parings, scrap arising in the course of the manufacture of exempted goods would be entitled for exemption as per Notification No. 89 /95-CE dated 18.5.1995.

46. Decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Hyderabad for the State of Telangana and State of Andhra Pradesh dated 08.10.2015 in CEA No. 107/2015 in the case of M/s Bharat Dynamics Ltd [2016-TIOL-33-HC-AP-CX]

46.1 Department has accepted the aforementioned order of the Hon’ble High Court of Andhra Pradesh where the Hon’ble Court dismissed the CEA filed by the Department reiterating and confirming the views expressed by the Tribunal.

46.2 In the matter, allegation was that party took CENVAT credit on inputs used for manufacturing exempted goods in violation of Rule 6 (1) of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 and did not pay the interest at the time of reversal of the said credit. On party’s appeal CESTAT held that in March, 2010, party asked the department to clarify if clearance of goods to M/s.B.E.L. is exempted. Pending clarification they took CENVAT credit during Sep’10 to Mar’11 since some of the job workers did not return all the inputs within 180 days till Sep’10 and the party had to reverse the credit. To reverse the credit, they had to take credit. When there was no clarification received from the department till March, 2011, the assessee had no option but to clear two consignments in March, 2011 on payment of excise duty of Rs.90, 94, 851 by utilizing the CENVAT Credit. On getting the clarification from TRU, CBEC in April, 2011, the appellant reversed the entire amount of CENVAT credit. In the circumstances, CESTAT held that it cannot be said that the credit had been taken by the appellant wrongly. When credit is not taken wrongly, the question of payment of interest does not arise in terms of provisions of Rule 14 of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004. Upholding CESTAT order, Hon’ble High Court held that departmental Appeal is devoid of merits and therefore dismissed it.

4. The aforementioned orders of the various High Courts have been accepted by the Board. It is requested that cases pending in your jurisdictions pertaining to the questions of law or identical case on facts decided in the said orders may kindly be decided expeditiously.

5. Difficulty, if any, in the implementation of this Circular may be brought to the notice of the Board. Hindi version will follow.

Shankar Prasad Sarma
Under Secretary to the Government of India

See also: latest Supreme Court of India judgements

CBDT Instruction On Conduct of Assessment Proceedings in scrutiny cases electronically

MASTI

Instruction No. 0I/2018
Government of India
Ministry of Finance
Department of Revenue
Central Board of Direct Taxes
North Block, New Delhi, the 12th of February, 2018

Subject: Conduct of Assessment Proceedings in scrutiny cases electronically-regd.-

5ub-section (23C) of Section 2 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (Act), applicable from 01.06.2016, provides that “hearing” includes communication of data and documents through electronic mode. Accordingly to facilitate conduct of assessment proceedings electronically, vide letter dated 23.06.2017, in file of even number, Board had issued a revised format of notice(s) under section 143(2) of the Act. Para 3 of these notice(s) provided that assessment proceedings in cases selected for scrutiny would be conducted electronically in ‘E-Proceeding’ facility through assessee’s account in E-filing website of Income-tax Department.

2. In accordance with the procedure outlined in revised 143(2) notice(s) for conduct of assessment proceedings electronically, it is hereby directed that except for search related assessments, proceedings in other pending scrutiny assessment cases shall be conducted only through the ‘E-Proceeding’ functionality in ITBA/E-filing. However, in cases where the concerned assessee objects to conduct of assessment proceedings electronically through the ‘E- Proceeding’ facility, such cases, for the time-being, may be kept on hold.

3. Further, considering the situation that some of the stations have limited bandwidth, being VSAT stations and stations with limited capacity where bandwidth is in the process of being upgraded, it has been decided that till 31.03.2018, such stations, in accordance with target stipulated in Centra! Action Plan for financial year 2017-18, may undertake and complete only ten percent scrutiny cases (which are getting barred by limitation on 31.12.2018) having the potential to effect recovery during the current year itself. The list of such stations shall be specified by the Pr. DGIT(Systems). Accordingly, at these stations, till 31.03.2018, the assessment proceedings in cases to be completed as per Central Action Plan target, may be conducted manually if e-assessment is not possible. It is reiterated that at other stations covered under para 2 above, subject to exceptions mentioned therein, the assessments would be conducted electronically only.

4. Some of the important procedural aspects while conducting assessment proceedings through ‘E-Proceeding’ are as under:

4.1 Enquiry before assessment in electronic mode: For enquiries before assessment in terms of section 142(l)(ii) of the Act, notice shall be issued electronically and delivered upon the assessee in his ‘E-Filing’ account. While filing the response electronically in compliance with notice under section 142(l)(ii) of the Act, the concerned assessee shall verify it in the manner prescribed under Rule 14 of Income-tax Rules, 1962.

4.2 Use of digital signature by Assessing Officer: All departmental orders/communications /notices being issued to the assessee through the ‘e-Proceeding’ facility are to be signed digitally by the Assessing Officer.

4.3 Time for compliance: Online submissions may be filed till the office hours on the date stipulated for compliance.

4.4 Availability of facility for electronic submission of documents in time barring situation or where case has been finally heard by the Assessing Officer: The facility for electronic submission of documents through ‘E- Proceeding’ shall be automatically closed seven days before the time barring date. In other situations, upon completion of proceedings, before passing the final order, concerned Assessing Officer, on his volition, shall close the e-submission facility after mentioning in electronic order sheet that ‘hearing has been concluded’. However, if required, in exceptional circumstances, the concerned Assessing Officer may enable further filing of submissions electronically under intimation to the Range Head in ITBA.

4.5 In assessment proceedings being carried out through the ‘E-Proceeding’ facility, a particular proceeding may take place manually in following situation(s):

i. where manual books of accounts or original documents have to be examined;

ii. where Assessing Officer invokes provisions of section 131 of the Act or a notice is issued for carrying out third party enquiries/investigations;

iii. where examination of witness is required to be made by the concerned assessee or the Department;

iv. where a show-cause notice contemplating any adverse view is issued by the Assessing Officer and assessee requests for personal hearing to explain the matter.

4.6 Maintenance of ‘Record’ in the context of ‘E-Proceeding’: In cases being assessed through ‘E-Proceeding’, from now on, as far as possible, case-records as well as note sheet of proceedings shall be maintained electronically.

5. This instruction may be brought to the notice of ail concerned for immediate compliance.

6. Hindi version to follow.

(Rohit Garg) Director (ITA.II), CBDT

(F.No. 225/1572017-ITA.II)

Copy to:-
1. PS to FM/OSD to FM/PS to MoS(F)/OSD to MoS(F)
2. PS to Secretary (Revenue)
3. Chairman, CBDT & All Members, CBDT
4. All Pr.CCsIT/ Pr.DsGIT
5. ITCC Section
6. O/o Pr. DGIT(Systems) for uploading on official website
7. Addl. CIT (Database Cell) for uploading on departmental website