Supreme Court Judgements

This is a collection of the latest Supreme Court judgements. These judgements have been delivered by the apex court in 2017 and 2018 and are landmark because they decide important principles of law.

The list of important judgements of the Supreme Court will be updated in real time so that citizens can be aware of the law laid down on important issues.

supreme court judgements

Binding force under Article 141 of the Constitution

The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial forum and final court of appeal under the Constitution of India.

It is the highest constitutional court and has the power of constitutional review. It has wide powers of original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions.

It decides appeals against judgements of the High Courts and other courts and tribunals.

Supreme Court Judgements are binding on all courts within India and on the union and state governments.

In Shenoy & Co. Vs. CTO (1985) 155 ITR 178 the Supreme Court held that the law laid down by it is binding on all, notwithstanding the fact that it is against the State or a private party; it is binding even on those who were not parties before the court.

It was also pointed out that as per Article 141 of the Constitution of India the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India.

It was clarified in Soma Wanti Vs. State of Punjab (1963) 33 Comp Cas 745 (SC) that the binding effect of Supreme Court Judgements on a question of law does not depend upon whether a particular argument was considered therein or not.

In CIT Vs. Sun Engineering Works (P) Ltd. (1992) 107 CTR (SC) 209, the Supreme Court held that it is neither desirable nor permissible to pick out a word or a sentence from a judgment divorced from the context of the question under consideration and treat it to be complete ‘law’ declared by the Apex Court.

It was held that a judgment must be read as a whole and the observations have to be considered in the light of the questions which were before the Court, principle emerging there from must be applied accordingly.

It is also a well settled proposition of law as laid down in Chandi Ram Vs. ITO (1996) 133 Taxation 219 (Raj) that the exposition of law by the Apex Court is not an enactment of the law but is merely an exposition of the correct position of the law which was always in existence.

How to access latest Supreme Court judgements

The authoritative source to access the judgements of the apex Court of India is through its official websites which can be accessed at (1) and (2).

However, the drawback of the official websites is that one cannot access the judgement if one is not aware of the case number, the name of the petitioner or the respondent or the date of the judgement.

Supreme Court Explains SARFAESI Act In Latest Judgement

MASTI

In the latest judgement, the Supreme Court has analyzed the provisions of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (hereinafter referred to as the ‘SARFAESI Act’) for recovery of the loan amounts, along with interest, which are payable by DECCAN CHRONICLE HOLDINGS LIMITED to INDIABULLS HOUSING FINANCE LIMITED

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

CIVIL APPEAL NO. 18 OF 2018

INDIABULLS HOUSING FINANCE
LIMITED …..APPELLANT(S)

VERSUS

M/S. DECCAN CHRONICLE HOLDINGS
LIMITED AND OTHERS …..RESPONDENT(S)

WITH

CONTEMPT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 756 OF 2017

AND

CONTEMPT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 1693 OF 2017

JUDGMENT

A.K. SIKRI, J.

This appeal preferred by Indiabulls Housing Finance Limited, in which the main contesting parties are M/s. Deccan Chronicle Holdings Limited and its Directors (other respondents are the proforma parties), questions the correctness and legality of the judgment and order dated February 04, 2014 passed by the High Court of Judicature of Andhra Pradesh at Hyderabad.

The impugned judgment is passed by the High Court in the writ petition which was filed by the contesting respondents questioning the validity of actions taken by the appellant against the contesting respondents under the provisions of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (hereinafter referred to as the ‘SARFAESI Act’) for recovery of the loan amounts, along with interest, which are payable by the contesting respondents to the appellant.

2) The High Court has accepted the challenge laid by the contesting respondents holding that:

(a) loan agreements contained arbitration clauses which were invoked by the appellant with the filing of cases under Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. In view thereof, initiation of any other proceedings under the SARFAESI Act are impermissible in law; and

(b) the loan was initially given by M/s. Indiabulls Financial Services Limited (for short, ‘IBFSL’) on December 08, 2011 and January 05, 2012 in the sum of Rs.50 crores each. IBFSL was not a banking company or financial institution within the meaning of Section 2(d) and (m) of the SARFAESI Act and, therefore, it had no jurisdiction to take any steps by invoking the provisions of this Act. However, IBFSL got merged with the appellant company. No doubt, the appellant is a financial institution under the SARFAESI Act. However, since IBFSL had no right to initiate any action under the said Act, as a successor-in-interest, the appellant steps into the shoes of IBFSL and, therefore, it also cannot initiate any action under the SARFAESI Act. If that is allowed, held the High Court, substantive rights of the contesting respondents which accrued to them under Sections 69 and 69A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 would be adversely affected, which cannot be countenanced.

3) Having given the glimpse of the transaction which was entered into between the parties and also that of the basis of the impugned judgment of the High Court, we proceed to discuss the details on which the lis is founded.

4) We may start with the narration of brief facts of the case, which are as follows:

On April 18, 2005, IBFSL was granted a certificate under Section 45-I(a) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 to operate as a Non-Banking Financial Company and, thus, act as a financial institution under the said Act. The appellant was incorporated on May 10, 2005. The appellant and IBFSL were sister concerns. The appellant was granted a registration certificate dated December 28, 2005 to commence the business of housing finance institution. The Central Government, vide Notification dated September 19, 2007, issued under Section 2(1)

(m) of SARFAESI Act, specified the petitioner as a ‘financial institution’ for the purposes of the said Act. IBFSL disbursed a loan amount of Rs.50 crores to the respondent borrowers vide Loan Agreement dated December 08, 2011. The loan facility was secured by the respondent borrowers by creating equitable mortgage over various properties. IBFSL also disbursed a further amount of Rs.50 crores to the respondent borrowers vide Loan Agreement dated January 05, 2012. The loan facility was security by the respondent borrowers again by creating equitable mortgage over various properties.

5) Sometime in the year 2012, it was proposed that IBFSL gets merged with the appellant. After completing the formalities of informing the National Housing Bank as well as the Reserve Bank of India about the aforesaid proposal and furnishing them copies of the scheme of merger, the appellant filed a petition under sections 391-394 of the Indian Companies Act, 1956 in the High Court of Delhi for merger of IBFSL with the appellant. The High Court, after taking various steps under the provisions of the Companies Act, ultimately sanctioned the scheme of arrangement between IBFSL and the appellant vide orders dated December 12, 2012. With the sanction of the aforesaid merger, the assets and liabilities of IBFSL stood vested in the appellant, with IBFSL being dissolved without winding up on its amalgamation with the appellant. Pursuant to the said merger, the borrowers of IBFSL, including the respondent borrowers, became the borrowers of the appellant.

6) Insofar as respondent borrowers are concerned, they had committed default in repaying the loans advanced to them by IBFSL and, therefore, even before the merger, IBFSL had issued loan recall notice dated September 18, 2012 to the respondent borrowers. On March 04, 2013, the loan accounts of the contesting respondents and other co-borrowers were classified as Non Performing Assets (NPA) by IBFSL. On March 06, 2013, IBFSL filed a petition under Section 9 of the Arbitration Act, being O.P. No. 377 and 378 of 2013, before III Addl. Chief Judge, City Civil Court, Hyderabad for securing the amount payable by the respondent borrowers. An ad-interim injunction restraining the respondent borrowers and other co-borrowers therein from alienating the scheduled properties to third parties in any manner was passed. The scheme of arrangement as approved by the order dated April 12, 2013 was filed with the Registrar of Companies on March 08, 2013 making the same effective. The appellant, having stepped into the shoes of IBFSL in respect of the debts owed to IBFSL, issued notice dated March 08, 2013 under Section 13(2) of SARFAESI Act to the respondent borrowers and other co-borrowers. This was followed by notice dated May 29, 2013 issued under Section 13(4) of SARFAESI Act in respect of taking over symbolic possession of the mortgaged properties.

7) The respondents herein, on July 17, 2013, filed SA No. 182 of 2013 before the Debts Recovery Tribunal, Chandigarh under Section 17 of SARFAESI Act challenging the action of the appellant invoking the measures under Section 13(4) of SARFAESI Act. Within few days thereafter, i.e. on July 30, 2013, respondent No.1 also field Writ Petition No. 22688 of 2013 challenging, inter alia, the declaration of the account as NPA and passing of orders by the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate under Section 14 of the SARFAESI Act. Similar writ petitions, being Writ Petition Nos. 22689 and 22934 of 2013 were filed by respondent No.1’s employee union and respondent No.4 respectively. On September 04, 2013, the respondents herein unconditionally withdrew SA No. 182 of 2013 filed before the Debts Recovery Tribunal, Chandigarh. The appellant issued an auction notice dated November 21, 2013 informing the respondent borrowers that auction of the Banjara Hill properties of the respondent borrowers would be conducted on December 24, 2013. At this juncture, on December 19, 2013, respondent Nos.1 to 5 filed Writ Petition No. 37381 of 2012 before the High Court.

8) In the aforesaid writ petition, the High Court passed interim orders dated December 20, 2013, directing the parties to maintain status quo. Another interim order dated December 23, 2013 was passed directing the appellant not to finalise the auction though it was permitted to receive bids. However, the said auction could not fructify as, according to the appellant, some miscreants belonging to the contesting respondents came on the spot and threatened the intending purchasers and even tried to beat the representatives of the respondents and, therefore, the auction had to be cancelled. The appellant thereafter issued another auction notice dated December 28, 2013 fixing the auction dates as 3rd and 4th February 2014 in respect of Banjara Hills and Raj Bhavan Road properties respectively. Auction in respect of Banjara Hills properties took place on February 03, 2014 as per the date fixed. However, the sale was not finalised on account f the interim orders passed by the High Court. On February 04, 2014, when the next property was to be auctioned, the High Court gave the judgment in Writ Petition No. 37381 of 2013 filed by the contesting respondents allowing the said writ petition and setting aside the entire invocation of the SARFAESI Act by the appellant.

9) As already pointed out above, the High Court is swayed by the fact that after IBFSL had invoked the provisions of Section 9 of the Arbitration Act and filed petitions in this behalf, having regard to the arbitration agreement between the parties, it was not open to the appellant to take recourse to the provisions of SARFAESI Act. This aspect is concluded in the following manner:

“The two O.Ps. i.e. 377 and 378 of 2013 have already been filed in the name of IBFSL, under Section 9 of the Arbitration Act. The arbitration clause that existed in the agreements has been extracted in the preceding paragraphs. Section 8 of the Arbitration Act makes it amply clear that if the agreement between the parties contains an arbitration clause, institution of other proceedings is prohibited. When a suit cannot be instituted by a party to an agreement, which contains an arbitration clause, the initiation of proceedings before other fora becomes equally untenable. The proceedings under the SARFAESI Act cannot be placed on a higher pedestal. The borrower of a secured financial institution, as defined under Section 2(f) of the SARFAESI Act cannot be treated as a super Court, to be kept on a higher pedestal in the context of Section 8 of the Arbitration Act. When arbitration proceedings have already been initiated, the 4th respondent cannot be permitted, ignore them and proceed against the security.”

10) The High Court noted that the contesting respondents had not borrowed any amount from the appellant. The loan was taken from IBFSL, which was not under the purview of SARFAESI Act.

Therefore, at the time of taking the loan, the respondent borrowers knew that IBFSL would not be in a position to take recourse to the SARFAESI Act. With the merger of IBFSL with the appellant, ruled the High Court, the loan transaction which was outside the purview of the SARFAESI Act, could not be brought under its purview without the consent of the borrower. According to the High Court, SARFAESI Act prescribes a new legal regime and if the loan is allowed to be brought within the SARFAESI Act only because of merger and the appellant is allowed to take recourse under the SARFAESI Act, it would affect substantive rights of the contesting borrowers under Sections 69 and 69A of the Transfer of Property Act. In the process, the High Court has noted that the views of the Uttarakhand High Court and the Allahabad High Court are contrary to the aforesaid view.

However, it chose to agree with the view taken by the Division Bench of the Orissa High Court in deciding that provisions of SARFAESI Act will not be applicable. Pertinently, Full Bench of the Orissa High Court itself has overruled its Division Bench judgment.

11) We may record at this stage that the main ground on which notice issued under SARFAESI Act had been quashed is the impermissibility of invoking the provisions of the Act by the appellant herein who took over the assets and liabilities of IBFSL on merger. Insofar as the other issue, namely, provisions of SARFAESI Act could not be invoked as IBFSL had already invoked the machinery under the Arbitration Act by filing petitions under Section 9 thereof is concerned, this is decided as the subsidiary issue. Insofar as this subsidiary question is concerned, learned counsel for the respondent did not press this ground seriously and it was virtually conceded that merely because IBFSL had filed applications under Section 9 of the Arbitration Act, would not create a bar for proceeding under the SARFAESI Act. Even otherwise, we find that the High Court was in error in deciding this issue. It is not correct to say that proceedings under the SARFAESI Act cannot be placed on high pedestal. We find that SARFAESI Act is a special enactment which was enacted by the Parliament to provide speedy remedy to the banks and financial institutions without recourse to the court of law. On the other hand, the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, in contrast, is a statute of general nature. Merely because steps are taken under this general law would not mean that remedy under the special statute is foreclosed. If at all, legal position is just the reverse. Matter is no more res integra and is covered by a judgment of this Court in Transcore v. Union of India & Anr.1 In that case, after analysing the provisions of the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993, the Court summed up the position as under:

“18. On analysing the above provisions of the DRT Act, we find that the said Act is a complete code by itself as far as recovery of debt is concerned. It provides for various modes of recovery. It incorporates even the provisions of the Second and Third Schedules to the Income Tax Act, 1961. Therefore, the debt due under the recovery certificate can be recovered in various ways. The remedies mentioned therein are complementary to each other. The DRT Act provides for adjudication. It provides for adjudication of disputes as far as the debt due is concerned. It covers secured as well as unsecured debts. However, it does not rule out applicability of the provisions of the TP Act, in particular Sections 69 and 69-A of that Act.

Further, in cases where the debt is secured by pledge of shares or immovable properties, with the passage of time and delay in the DRT proceedings, the value of the pledged assets or mortgaged properties invariably 1 (2008) 1 SCC 125 falls. On account of inflation, value of the assets in the hands of the bank/FI invariably depletes which, in turn, leads to asset-liability mismatch. These contingencies are not taken care of by the DRT Act and, therefore, Parliament had to enact the NPA Act, 2002.”

12) Thereafter, the Court analysed the provisions of SARFAESI Act and then noted, in paragraph 37 of the judgment, three points of determination which arose for consideration. We are concerned with point No.1 formulated therein, which reads as under:

“(i) Whether the banks or financial institutions having elected to seek their remedy in terms of the DRT Act, 1993 can still invoke the NPA Act, 2002 for realising the secured assets without withdrawing or abandoning the OA filed before DRT under the DRT Act.”

13) After detailed discussion on this question, the Court rejected the applicability of the doctrine of election by holding that simply because remedy under the provisions of the DRT Act was availed would not mean that the financial institution was precluded from taking steps under SARFAESI Act. Thus, answering the question in the affirmative, essence of the discussion can be captured in the following paragraphs:

“64. In the light of the above discussion, we now examine the doctrine of election. There are three elements of election, namely, existence of two or more remedies; inconsistencies between such remedies and a choice of one of them. If any one of the three elements is not there, the doctrine will not apply. According to American Jurisprudence, 2d, Vol. 25, p.

652, if in truth there is only one remedy, then the doctrine of election does not apply. In the present case, as stated above, the NPA Act is an additional remedy to the DRT Act. Together they constitute one remedy and, therefore, the doctrine of election does not apply. Even according to Snell’s Principles of Equity (31st Edn., p. 119), the doctrine of election of remedies is applicable only when there are two or more co-existent remedies available to the litigants at the time of election which are repugnant and inconsistent. In any event, there is no repugnancy nor inconsistency between the two remedies, therefore, the doctrine of election has no application.

65. In our view, the judgments of the High Courts which have taken the view that the doctrine of election is applicable are erroneous and liable to be set aside.

66. We have already analysed the scheme of both the Acts. Basically, the NPA Act is enacted to enforce the interest in the financial assets which belongs to the bank/FI by virtue of the contract between the parties or by operation of common law principles or by law. The very object of Section 13 of the NPA Act is recovery by non-adjudicatory process. A secured asset under the NPA Act is an asset in which interest is created by the borrower in favour of the bank/FI and on that basis alone the NPA Act seeks to enforce the security interest by non-adjudicatory process. Essentially, the NPA Act deals with the rights of the secured creditor.

The NPA Act proceeds on the basis that the debtor has failed not only to repay the debt, but he has also failed to maintain the level of margin and to maintain value of the security at a level is the other obligation of the debtor. It is this other obligation which invites applicability of the NPA Act. It is for this reason, that Sections 13(1) and 13(2) of the NPA Act proceed on the basis that security interest in the bank/FI needs to be enforced expeditiously without the intervention of the court/tribunal; that liability of the borrower has accrued and on account of default in repayment, the account of the borrower in the books of the bank has become non-performing. For the above reasons, the NPA Act states that the enforcement could take place by non-adjudicatory process and that the said Act removes all fetters under the above circumstances on the rights of the secured creditor.”

14) With this, we now address the central issue on which detailed arguments were advanced by both the parties. We may note that our discussion is not on a virgin field as the terrain has already been covered by this Court in M.D. Frozen Foods Exports Pvt. Ltd. & Ors. v. Hero Fincorp Ltd.2 The learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant had submitted that this case, which is directly on point, not only lays down the proposition that even successor-in-interest (like the appellant herein) would be authorised to invoke the provisions of SARFAESI Act even if the original lender was not a financial institution covered by the Act, it has specifically overruled the judgment of the Andhra Pradesh High Court, which is the subject matter of appeal at hand. On that basis, it was submitted that it was not even necessary to have further probe in the matter.

15) Learned counsel for the appellant is factually correct in pointing out that the impugned judgment of the Andhra Pradesh High Court is specifically noted and overruled by this Court in M.D. Frozen Foods. Therefore, it would be apt to discuss the said judgment in the first instance.

16) In M.D. Frozen Foods the appellants had borrowed monies for their business from the respondents against security of 2 (2017) SCC Online SC 1211 immovable properties by creating an equitable mortgage. Loan agreement contained an arbitration clause. Since the appellant defaulted in making the payment and the account became NPA, the respondent invoked the arbitration clause on November 16, 2016. However, three months before this invocation, a notification was issued on August 05, 2016 specifying certain Non-Financial Banking Companies (NFBCs) covered under clause (f) of Section 45-I of the RBI Act, with assets of more than Rs. 500 crores and above, as financial institutions and directing that the provisions of SARFAESI Act shall apply to such financial institutions with the exceptions of provisions of Sections 13 to 19 of that Act. Sections 13 to 19 were made applicable, as per the notification, only to such security interest which is obtained for securing repayment of secured debt with principal amount of Rs.1 crore and above. The respondent was specifically covered by the said notification which was issued in exercise of powers conferred under sub-clause (iv) of clause (m) of sub-section (1) of Section 2 read with Section 31A of the SARFAESI Act. In view of the aforesaid notification, the respondent issued a notice under Section 13(2) of SARFAESI Act on November 24, 2016 for one of the seven properties mortgaged to it against the aforesaid loan which was advanced to the appellants.

17) Having regard to the aforesaid facts in M.D. Frozen Foods, the Court formulated following three questions which had arisen for consideration:

“A. Whether the arbitration proceedings initiated by the respondent can be carried on along with the SARFAESI proceedings simultaneously?

B. Whether resort can be had to Section 13 of the SARFAESI Act in respect of debts which have arisen out of a loan agreement/mortgage created prior to the application of the SARFAESI Act to the respondent?

C. A linked question to question (ii), whether the lender can invoke the SARFAESI Act provision where its notification as financial institution under Section 2(1)

(m) has been issued after the account became an NPA under Section 2(1)(o) of the said Act?” These questions amply demonstrate that the instant case is virtually on the same footing.

18) Insofar as question ‘A’ is concerned, the Court categorically held that merely because remedy under the Arbitration Act was invoked was no ground to debar the respondent from taking recourse to the SARFAESI Act. The discussion from that judgment is reproduced below:

“26. A claim by a bank or a financial institution, before the specified laws came into force, would ordinarily have been filed in the Civil Court having the pecuniary jurisdiction. The setting up of the Debt Recovery Tribunal under the RDDB Act resulted in this specialised Tribunal entertaining such claims by the banks and financial institutions. In fact, suits from the civil jurisdiction were transferred to the Debt Recovery Tribunal. The Tribunal was, thus, an alternative to a Civil Court recovery proceedings.

27. On the SARFAESI Act being brought into force seeking to recover debts against security interest, a question was raised whether parallel proceedings could go on under the RDDB Act and the SARFAESI Act. This issue was clearly answered in favour of such simultaneous proceedings in Transcore v. Union of India. A later judgment in Mathew Varghese v. M. Amritha Kumar also discussed this issue in the following terms:

“45. A close reading of Section 37 shows that the provisions of the SARFAESI Act or the Rules framed thereunder will be in addition to the provisions of the RDDB Act. Section 35 of the SARFAESI Act states that the provisions of the SARFAESI Act will have overriding effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent contained in any other law for the time being in force. Therefore, reading Sections 35 and 37 together, it will have to be held that in the event of any of the provisions of the RDDB Act not being inconsistent with the provisions of the SARFAESI Act, the application of both the Acts, namely, the SARFAESI Act and the RDDB Act, would be complementary to each other. In this context, reliance can be placed upon the decision in Transcore v. Union of India [(2008) 1 SCC 125 :

(2008) 1 SCC (Civ) 116]. In para 64 it is stated as under after referring to Section 37 of the SARFAESI Act: (SCC p. 162) “64. … According to American Jurisprudence, 2d, Vol. 25, p. 652, if in truth there is only one remedy, then the doctrine of election does not apply. In the present case, as stated above, the NPA Act is an additional remedy to the DRT Act. Together they constitute one remedy and, therefore, the doctrine of election does not apply. Even according to Snell’s Principles of Equity (31st Edn., p. 119), the doctrine of election of remedies is applicable only when there are two or more co-existent remedies available to the litigants at the time of election which are repugnant and inconsistent. In any event, there is no repugnancy nor inconsistency between the two remedies, therefore, the doctrine of election has no application.” (emphasis added)

46. A reading of Section 37 discloses that the application of the SARFAESI Act will be in addition to and not in derogation of the provisions of the RDDB Act. In other words, it will not in any way nullify or annul or impair the effect of the provisions of the RDDB Act. We are also fortified by our above statement of law as the heading of the said section also makes the position clear that application of other laws are not barred. The effect of Section 37 would, therefore, be that in addition to the provisions contained under the SARFAESI Act, in respect of proceedings initiated under the said Act, it will be in order for a party to fall back upon the provisions of the other Acts mentioned in Section 37, namely, the Companies Act, 1956, the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956, the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992, the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993, or any other law for the time being in force.”

28. These observations, thus, leave no manner of doubt and the issue is no more res integra, especially keeping in mind the provisions of Sections 35 and 37 of the SARFAESI Act, which read as under:

“35. The provisions of this Act to override other laws. – The provisions of this Act shall have effect, notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith contained in any other law for the time being in force or any instrument having effect by virtue of any such law.” … .… .… .….

“37. Application of other laws not barred.

– The provisions of this Act or the rules made thereunder shall be in addition to, and not in derogation of, the Companies Act, 1956 (1 of 1956), the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 (42 of 1956), the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 (15 of 1992), the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 (51 of 1993) or any other law for the time being in force.”

29. The aforesaid two Acts are, thus, complimentary to each other and it is not a case of election of remedy.

xx xx xx

33. SARFAESI proceedings are in the nature of enforcement proceedings, while arbitration is an adjudicatory process. In the event that the secured assets are insufficient to satisfy the debts, the secured creditor can proceed against other assets in execution against the debtor, after determination of the pending outstanding amount by a competent forum.

34. We are, thus, unequivocally of the view that the judgments of the Full Bench of the Orissa High Court in Sarthak Builders Pvt. Ltd. v. Orissa Rural Development Corporation Limited, the Full Bench of the Delhi High Court in HDFC Bank Limited v. Satpal Singh Bakshi (supra) and the Division Bench of the Allahabad High Court in Pradeep Kumar Gupta v. State of U.P. lay down the correct proposition of law and the view expressed by the Andhra Pradesh High Court in Deccan Chronicles Holdings Limited v. Union of India following the overruled decision of the Orissa High Court in Subash Chandra Panda v. State of Orissa does not set forth the correct position in law. SARFAESI proceedings and arbitration proceedings, thus, can go hand in hand.”

19) Insofar as questions ‘B’ and ‘C’ are concerned, the Court again referred to the conflicting opinion of different High Courts and after discussion held that the SARFAESI Act was retroactive in nature and, therefore, once this Act came into force, the respondent in the said case had right to invoke the provisions of the Act even if loan agreement was entered into and mortgage created prior to the coming into force the SARFAESI Act.

Paragraphs 36 to 38 of the judgment need to be reproduced in this behalf, which are to the following effect:

“36. The SARFAESI Act was brought into force to solve the problem of recovery of large debts in NPAs. Thus, the very rationale for the said Act to be brought into force was to provide an expeditious procedure where there was a security interest. It certainly did not apply retrospectively from the date when it came into force. The question is whether, the Act being applicable to the respondent at a subsequent date and thereby allowing the respondent to utilize its provisions with regards to a past debt, would make any difference to this principle. We are of the view that the answer to the same is in the negative.

37. The Act applies to all the claims which would be alive at the time when it was brought into force. Thus, qua the respondent or other NBFCs, it would be applicable similarly from the date when it was so made applicable to them.

38. The Full Bench of the Orissa High Court in Sarthak Builders Pvt. Ltd. v. Orissa Rural Development Corporation Limited (supra) has, in fact, succinctly sets out this aspect. No doubt, till the respondent was not a ‘financial institution’ within the meaning of Section 2(1)(m)(iv) of the SARFAESI Act, it was not a ‘secured creditor’ as defined under Section 2(1)(zd) of the SARFAESI Act and, thus, could not invoke the provisions of the SARFAESI Act. However, the right to proceed under the SARFAESI Act accrued once the Notification was issued. The Full Bench referred to a Division Bench judgment of the Uttarakhand High Court in Unique Engineering Works v. Union of India which dealt with the issue of retrospectivity and retroactivity. In case of retroactivity, the Parliament takes note of the existing conditions and promulgates the remedial measures to rectify those conditions. In fact the SARFAESI Act, in our view, was to remedy such a position and provide a measure against secured interests. The scheme of the SARFAESI Act, is really to provide a procedural remedy against security interest already created.

Therefore, an existing borrower, who had been granted financial assistance was covered under Section 2(f) of the said Act as a ‘borrower’. Not only this expression, the definition clauses dealing with ‘debt securities’, ‘financial assistance’, ‘financial assets’, etc., clearly convey the legislative intent that the SARFAESI Act applies to all existing agreements irrespective of the fact whether the lender was a notified ‘financial institution’ on the date of the execution of the agreement with the borrower or not. The scheme of the SARFAESI Act sets out an expeditious, procedural methodology, enabling the bank to take possession of the property for non- payment of dues, without intervention of the court. The mere fact that a more expeditious remedy is provided under the SARFAESI Act does not mean that it is substantive in character or has created an altogether new right. To accept the argument of the appellants would imply that they have an inherent right to delay the enforcement against the security interest!”

20) The Court also referred to certain judgments laying down distinction between retroactive and retrospective operation of a particular statute3.

21) The fact situation was, thus, almost the same in the instant case.

The only difference is that here the loan was initially sanctioned by IBFSL which stands merged with the appellant and the appellant is the successor-in-interest which is covered by the SARFAESI Act. In the aforesaid case, though the entity which disbursed the loan remained the same, however, at the time 3 West v. Gwynne, 1911 2 Ch 1 at pp. 11, 12 Trimbak Damodhar Raipurkar v. Assaram Hiraman Patil, 1962 Supp (1) SCR 700 In re Athlumney. Ex parte Wilson, (1898) 2 Q.B. 547 when the loan was given by the respondent to the appellant it was not a financial institution covered under the SARFAESI Act, which status was attained by the respondent in view of notification dated August 05, 2016 issued much after the loan was disbursed to the appellant therein. This does not make any difference in the outcome, as discussed in detailed hereinafter.

22) Learned counsel for respondents could not dispute that the aforesaid judgment covers the present case in its entirety. This position had to be accepted by them having regard to the fact that the judgment of the High Court which is impugned in these proceedings has been specifically overruled by this Court in M.D. Frozen Foods case. Faced with this stark reality staring at the face of the respondents, a valiant effort was made to convince this Bench to take a contrary view and in the process it was submitted that in M.D. Frozen Foods some important legal aspects have not been considered.

23) To put it pithily, the submissions of the learned counsel for respondents revolved around the following aspects:

(i) The appellant had neither advanced nor granted any loan or financial assistance to respondent no. 1 and, therefore, it could not have invoked the provisions of the SARFAESI Act.

(ii) Respondent no. 1 could not be treated as ‘borrower’ as defined under Section 2(1)(f) of the SARFAESI Act read with Sections 2(1)(c) and 2(1)(m) of that Act. Submission was that the respondent no. 1 is not a person who has been granted financial assistance by any Bank or Financial Institution nor can respondent no. 1 be brought under the ambit of the definition of being a person who has given a guarantee or create any mortgage or pledge as security for the financial assistance granted by any Bank or Financial Institution, i.e., the appellant. It was argued that the definition of the term borrower is clear and un-ambiguous itself and the rule of literal interpretation deserves to be deployed. The respondents relied upon the dictum in P.K. Unni vs. Nirmala Industries & Others 4 wherein it is held that the Court must proceed on an assumption that the legislature did not make a mistake and that it intended to say what it said it was further held that even assuming that there was a defect or omission in the words used by the legislature, the Court would not go to its said to correct or make up the deficiency. The Court cannot add words to a statute or read words into it which are not there, especially 4 (1990) 2 SCC 378 when the literal reading produces an intelligible result. The courts are not authorised to alter a word so as to produce a “casus omissus”. Support from the judgment in the matter of Union of India v. Elphin Stone Spinning and Weaving Company Limited & Others 5 was also taken in this behalf. The learned counsel also referred to yet another case, viz., Delhi Financial Corporation and another v. Rajiv Anand and others6 wherein this aforesaid principle is reiterated.

(iii) The loan agreements dated December 08, 2011 and January 05, 2012 which were entered into between respondent No. 1 and IBFSL cannot be classified as ‘security arrangement’ within the meaning of Section 2(1) (zb) of the SARFAESI Act.

(iv) These agreements did not create ‘security interest’ within the meaning of Section 2(1)(zb) of the SARFAESI Act. It was argued that the term security assets as defined under Section 2(1)(zc) of the Act means the property on which the security interest is created. The terms ‘security interest’ is defined under Section 2(1)(zf) to mean right, title, interest of any kind whatsoever upon property created in favour of a secured creditor (as defined under Section 2(1)(zb) and 5 (2001) 4 SCC 139 6 (2004) 11 SCC 625 includes a mortgage, charge, hypothecation or assignment other than specified in Section 31). Similarly security agreement is defined under Section 2(1)(zb).

The submission was that the agreements dated December 08, 2011 and January 05, 2012 do not fall within the purview of Section 2(a)(zb) since at the time when the said agreements were entered into, the entity in favour of which they were executed, i.e., Indiabulls Financial Services Limited, was not a secured creditor within the meaning of Section 2(1)(zd) of the SARFAESI Act. Under the circumstances are the necessary ingredients of Section 13(1) and 13(2) being absent, no action could have been taken under Section 13(2) or Section 13(4) of the Act. It is this say of the respondents that the clauses contained in the scheme of amalgamation, firstly do not manifest any intention to create any new right in favour of the amalgamated company. Secondly, clauses in scheme of amalgamation, albeit sanctioned by Court, cannot be raised to the pedestal of statutory provisions creating a right in favour of subsequent acquirer of rights not statutorily provided, nor can such clauses be held to create a deeming fiction not statutorily provided.

(v) Amalgamation of an entity not lying within the ambit of SARFAESI Act then entity which falls within realm of the said Act would not entitle amalgamated entity to invoke the provisions of SARFAESI Act, in respect of a transaction/agreement entered into much prior to the amalgamation. The submission was that the imprimatur created by virtue of sanctioning of a scheme by High Court under Sections 391 to 394 of the Companies Act cannot be held to create rights, liabilities and obligations which were not statutorily envisaged. It was argued that the provisions of SARFAESI Act, cannot be held to be purely procedural, they create substantial right in favour of the secured creditor for recovery of its dues by way of enforcement of security interest without invocation of the court. Section 13(1) creates substantive rights and by no stretch of imagination, and cannot be said to a provision, procedural in nature. The procedure for enforcement of that substantial right is provided under Sub-Section (2) on the happening of the eventuality as mentioned therein. That a further procedure of prescribing the details in a notice is to be given by virtue of Section 13(3) and provide for making a representation under Section 13(3)(A) and further provides for a procedure for release and recovery of secured debt under Section 13(4). In absence of a substantial right being created by Section 13(1), procedural provisions contained in sub- Sections (2) to (4) are meaningless as it would not provide a remedy for the enforcement of substantial right created under Section 13(4). It would not, therefore, be correct to treat SARFAESI Act as a merely procedural statute.

24) It was submitted that this was a reverse merger inasmuch as IBFSL was a holding company and the appellant company was only a subsidiary company and holding company was sought to be amalgamated and merged with the subsidiary company.

25) It was also submitted that the entire exercise of merger was undertaken to transfer loan from financial company to a financial company in order to take advantage of provisions of SARFAESI Act, which according to the respondents is not permissible in law. On the aforesaid basis, the first submission of the learned counsel for respondents was that there was no transfer and vesting of loan in the appellant company provisions as per the scheme. It was argued that the scheme envisaged, under paragraph 4, that with effect from the appointed date, i.e., April 01, 2012, the amalgamating company comprising the amalgamating undertaking shall, pursuant to the sanction of the scheme by the High Court and compliance of statutory provisions, be and stand transferred to and vested in the amalgamated company as a going concern without any further act, instrument, deed, matter or thing so as to become, as and from the appointed date April 01, 2012, the undertakings of the amalgamated company by virtue of and in the manner provided in the scheme.

26) Various other clauses of the scheme were referred to, to buttress the aforesaid submission. In this hue, it was argued that since as per Clause 8 of the Scheme, all suits, actions and other proceedings including legal and taxation proceedings etc. are to be continued or enforced by or against the amalgamating company. The proceedings instituted by IBFSL under Section 9 of the Arbitration Act against the respondents would be deemed to be an act of the appellant. In other words, the amalgamating company can have no better and further right that one possesses by IBFSL.

27) The learned counsel for the respondents attempted to strengthen the aforesaid architecture with the help of some legal precedents. In the first instance, reference was made to the judgment in the case of Rishabh Agro Industries Limited v. P.N.B. Service Limited7 wherein this Court held as under:

“6. Learned counsel appearing for the respondent has submitted that such an interpretation would defeat the ends of justice and make the petitions under the Companies Act, infructuous inasmuch as any unscrupulous litigant, after suffering an order of winding up, may approach the Board merely be filing a petition and consequently get the proceedings in the Company case stayed. Such a grievance may be justified and the submission having substance but in view of the language of Sections 15 and 16 of the Act particularly explanation to Section 16 inserted by Act No. 12 of 1994, this Court has no option but to adhere to its earlier decision taken in Real Value Appliances (Supra). While interpreting, this Court only interprets the law and cannot legislate it. If a provision of law is misused and subjected to the abuse of process of law, it is for the Legislature to amend modify or repeal it by having recourse to appropriate procedure, if deemed necessary.” It was argued that the above observations of this Court clearly negate the submission of the appellant that because the SARFAESI Act has been enacted to overcome the accumulated NPA in public interest, the term ‘borrower’ has to be widely construed.

28) Reliance was also placed on the Constitution Bench judgment in the case of Padma Sundara Rao v. State of Tamil Nadu8 where this Court has held as under:

“12. The rival pleas regarding rewriting of statute and casus omissus need careful consideration. It is well-

settled principle in law that the court cannot read anything into a statutory provision which is plain and 7 (2000) 5 SCC 515 8 (2002) 3 SCC 533 unambiguous. A statute is an edict of the legislature.

The language employed in a statute is the determinative factor of legislative intent. The first and primary rule of construction is that the intention of the legislation must be found in the words used by the legislature itself. The question is not what may be supposed and has been intended but what has been said. “Statutes should be construed, not as theorems of Euclid”, Judge Learned Hand said, “but words must be construed with some imagination of the purposes which lie behind them”. (See Lenigh Valley Coal Co. v. Yensavage [218 FR 547].) The view was reiterated in Union of India v. Filip Tiago De Gama of Vedem Vasco De Gama [(1990) 1 SCC 277 : AIR 1990 SC 981].

13. In D.R. Venkatchalam v. Dy. Transport Commr. [(1977) 2 SCC 273 : AIR 1977 SC 842] it was observed that courts must avoid the danger of a priori determination of the meaning of a provision based on their own preconceived notions of ideological structure or scheme into which the provision to be interpreted is somewhat fitted. They are not entitled to usurp legislative function under the disguise of interpretation.

14. While interpreting a provision the court only interprets the law and cannot legislate it. If a provision of law is misused and subjected to the abuse of process of law, it is for the legislature to amend, modify or repeal it, if deemed necessary.

(See Rishabh Agro Industries Ltd. v. P.N.B. Capital Services Ltd. [(2000) 5 SCC 515]) The legislative casus omissus cannot be supplied by judicial interpretative process. Language of Section 6(1) is plain and unambiguous. There is no scope for reading something into it, as was done in Narasimhaiah case [(1996) 3 SCC 88] . In Nanjudaiah case [(1996) 10 SCC 619] the period was further stretched to have the time period run from date of service of the High Court’s order. Such a view cannot be reconciled with the language of Section 6(1). If the view is accepted it would mean that a case can be covered by not only clause (i) and/or clause (ii) of the proviso to Section 6(1), but also by a non-prescribed period. Same can never be the legislative intent.

15. Two principles of construction — one relating to casus omissus and the other in regard to reading the statute as a whole — appear to be well settled. Under the first principle a casus omissus cannot be supplied by the court except in the case of clear necessity and when reason for it is found in the four corners of the statute itself but at the same time a casus omissus should not be readily inferred and for that purpose all the parts of a statute or section must be construed together and every clause of a section should be construed with reference to the context and other clauses thereof so that the construction to be put on a particular provision makes a consistent enactment of the whole statute. This would be more so if literal construction of a particular clause leads to manifestly absurd or anomalous results which could not have been intended by the legislature. “An intention to produce an unreasonable result”, said Danckwerts, L.J., in Artemiou v. Procopiou [(1966) 1 QB 878 : (1965) 3 All ER 539 : (1965) 3 WLR 1011 (CA)] (at All ER p. 544-I), “is not to be imputed to a statute if there is some other construction available”. Where to apply words literally would “defeat the obvious intention of the legislation and produce a wholly unreasonable result”, we must “do some violence to the words” and so achieve that obvious intention and produce a rational construction. [Per Lord Reid in Luke v. IRC [1963 AC 557 : (1963) 1 All ER 655 : (1963) 2 WLR 559 (HL)] where at AC p. 577 he also observed: (All ER p. 664-I) “This is not a new problem, though our standard of drafting is such that it rarely emerges.”]”

29) It was contended that in light of the above-stated principles enunciated in the Constitution Bench decision, since the language of Section 2(1)(f) and 2(a)(zf) is unambiguous, the casus omissus cannot be applied by a judicial interpretation process. It was submitted that there is no scope of reading something into, which it does not exist.

30) Counsel for the respondents also placed strong reliance upon the judgment in the ICICI Bank Limited v. Official Liquidator of APS Star Industries and others 9 which centres around the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and guidelines of RBI issued on the subject of inter se transfer of non-performing assets by Bank. It was held that the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 does not come in the way of such transfers. Banks/Banking Companies are covered under SARFAESI Act in any event. As such, transfers inter se bank would not give rise to the question of change in the nature of the lender leading to change in the status of applicability of SARFAESI Act. On that basis, it was submitted that such a transfer would not change the status of a borrower who, if earlier created a security interest, continues to be a borrower of another secured creditor. However, in the present case, there is sought to be a complete change in the status of the borrower and that too without his consent.

31) The learned counsel, at the end, made a passionate plea about the far reaching consequences which may ensue if the appellant is permitted to take recourse to the provisions of SARFAESI Act as debts would be transferred to SARFAESI companies to take advantage of that enactment.

9 (2010) 100 SCC

32) After considering the aforesaid submission, we are of the opinion

that entire edifice is built on the pleas which are squarely answered in M.D. Frozen Foods and there is no reason to take a different view therefrom for the reasons that follow hereinafter.

33) In the instant case, loan was given by IBFSL which was not a financial institution covered by the SARFAESI Act when the loan was given. However, this entity has got merged with the appellant and appellant is a SARFAESI company. In this backdrop, the entire thrust of the argument of the respondent is that as a successor company, the appellant cannot take advantage. In order to deal with this aspect, we will have to first taken into consideration, the effect of such a merger scheme as approved by the High Court. It is to be kept in mind that the loan/debts/financial assets stood vested in the appellant pursuant to the amalgamation scheme filed by the two companies under Sections 391 and 394 of the Companies Act, 1956 whereunder the predecessor company, IBFSL got amalgamated with the appellant, the effect of such a merger is explained by this Court in Saraswati Industrial Syndicate Ltd. v. Commissioner of Income Tax10 in the following manner:

10 1990(Supp) SCC 675 “5. Generally, where only one company is involved in change and the rights of the shareholders and creditors are varied, it amounts to reconstruction or reorganisation of scheme of arrangement. In amalgamation two or more companies are fused into one by merger or by taking over by another.

Reconstruction or ‘amalgamation’ has no precise legal meaning. The amalgamation is a blending of two or more existing undertakings into one undertaking, the shareholders of each blending company become substantially the shareholders in the company which is to carry on the blended undertakings. There may be amalgamation either by the transfer of two or more undertakings to a new company, or by the transfer of one or more undertakings to an existing company. Strictly ‘amalgamation’ does not cover the mere acquisition by a company of the share capital of other company which remains in existence and continues its undertaking but the context in which the term is used may show that it is intended to include such an acquisition. See: Halsbury’s Laws of England (4th edition volume 7 para 1539). Two companies may join to form a new company, but there may be absorption or blending of one by the other, both amount to amalgamation. When two companies are merged and are so joined, as to form a third company or one is absorbed into one or blended with another, the amalgamating company loses its entity.”

34) Thus, on sanction of the scheme of amalgamation, all loans, recoveries, security, interest, financial documents, etc. in favour of IBFSL got transferred to and stood vested in the appellant including the loans given by IBFSL to respondent borrowers, debts recoverable by IBFSL from respondent borrowers in favour of IBFSL, security documents executed by respondent borrowers in favour of IBFSL, etc. On the sanctioning of the scheme, the respondent borrowers became the borrower of the appellant as if the financial assistance was granted by the appellant to the respondent borrowers.

35) There is a force in the contention by the appellant that the debt with underlying securities is the asset of IBFSL and that IBFSL had right to transfer/assign its assets to any person without seeking consent of the borrower. Such transfer/assignment is recognized and that this Court in the case of Official Liquidator of APS Star Industries has recognised and upheld such an assignment.

36) In the aforesaid backdrop, the factor which assumes importance and has to be kept in mind is that the appellant is an assignee of a debt through the amalgamation of original lender with the appellant which was effected invoking the statutory provisions of the Companies Act. Once this is kept in mind, there would not be any difference as far as consequences in law are concerned from the case of M.D. Frozen Foods and this case. Therefore, M.D. Frozen Foods case would apply to the facts of this case in all force.

37) Further, it is too farfetched to argue that just to realise the dues from the respondents, IBFSL and the appellant devised the plan of merger so as to attract the provisions of SARFAESI Act and we are not inclined to accept such a submission. Various judgments which are relied upon by the respondents also would not apply as we neither find it to be a case of the Court creating any legislation or supplying any casus omissus.

38) Apart from the factual parity, even legally the arguments of the respondents do not carry any weight. The view taken in M.D. Frozen Foods is that the SARFAESI Act is retroactive in nature. In the process, the Court approved the Full Bench decision of the Orissa High Court in Sarthak Builders Pvt. Ltd., Chinta, Arunodaya Market, Cuttack & Another v. Orissa Rural Development Corporation Limited, Station Square, Bhubaneswar & 5 Ors.11 and made the following observations:

“38…In case of retroactivity, the Parliament takes note of the existing conditions and promulgates the remedial measures to rectify those conditions. In fact the SARFAESI Act, in our view, was to remedy such a position and provide a measure against secured interests. The scheme of the SARFAESI Act, is really to provide a procedural remedy against security interest already created. Therefore, an existing borrower, who had been granted financial assistance was covered under Section 2(f) of the said Act as a ‘borrower’. Not only this expression, the definition clauses dealing with ‘debt securities’, ‘financial assistance’, ‘financial assets’, etc., clearly convey the legislative intent that the SARFAESI Act applies to all existing agreements irrespective of the fact whether the lender was a notified ‘financial institution’ on the date of the execution of the agreement with the 11 (2014) SCC Online Ori 75 borrower or not. The scheme of the SARFAESI Act sets out an expeditious, procedural methodology, enabling the bank to take possession of the property for non-payment of dues, without intervention of the court. The mere fact that a more expeditious remedy is provided under the SARFAESI Act does not mean that it is substantive in character or has created an altogether new right. To accept the argument of the appellants would imply that they have an inherent right to delay the enforcement against the security interest!

39. The catena of judgments referred to by learned senior counsel for the appellants on substantive law not being retrospective in operation, unless expressly stated so in the Act would, thus, have no application to the matter in issue, in view of what we have observed aforesaid. On the other hand, as observed by Buckley, L.J. in West v. Gwynne, retrospective operation is one matter and interference with existing rights is another. In that context, it was ruled that the provisions of the Conveyancing of Law and Property Act, 1892 were held applicable to leases containing a covenant, condition or agreement against assigning, under- letting or parting with possession or disposing of land or property leased without license or consent to all leases whether executed before or after the commencement of the Act. Such a construction was held not to make the Act retrospective in operation but merely effected the future existing rights under all leases whether executed before or after the date of that Act. (Discussed in Trimbak Damodhar Raipurkar v. Assaram Hiraman Patil).

40. In a similar vein, are the observations made in the case of In re Athlumney. Ex parte Wilson, where the question posed before the Queen’s Division Bench was whether Section 23 of the Bankruptcy Act, 1890 was retrospective in its operation. In the aforementioned context, Wright, J., speaking for the Bench, illuminatingly opined:

“Perhaps no rule of construction is more firmly established than this — that a retrospective operation is not to be given to a statute so as to impair an existing right or obligation, otherwise than as regards matter of procedure, unless that effect cannot be avoided without doing violence to the language of the enactment. If the enactment is expressed in language which is fairly capable of either interpretation, it ought to be construed as prospective only… it is a general rule that when the Legislature alters the rights of parties by taking away or conferring any right of action, its enactments, unless in express terms they apply to pending actions, do not affect them…It is said that there is one exception to that rule, namely, that, where enactments merely affect procedure and do not extend to rights of action, they have been held to apply to existing rights, and it is suggested here that the alteration made by this section is within that exception…” (Emphasis supplied)

41. Similarly, the date on which a debt is declared as an NPA would again have no impact. We are, thus, of the view that the provisions of the SARFAESI Act would become applicable quaall debts owing and live when the Act became applicable to the respondent in terms of the parameters contended by learned senior counsel for the respondent and enlisted at serial Nos. i to iv in para 18.” It, thus, follows that there is only a procedural change in respect of forum for recovery of debt and no substantive rights are affected.

39) In view of the aforesaid judgment, argument of the respondents herein predicated on Sections 69 and 69A of the Transfer of Property Act, which weighed with the High Court, is without any substance.

40) The aforesaid view also gets support from the judgment of this Court in Mardia Chemicals Ltd. & Ors. v. Union of India & Ors.12 wherein the background and salient feature of the SARFAESI Act have been extensively discussed and analysed and the Court has also highlighted the objective behind enacting such a legislation.

41) These sentiments are echoed in the subsequent judgment in the case of United Bank of India v. Satyawati Tondon and Others13 wherein it was held that the Act is intended to give impetus to industrial development in the country by providing speedy procedure of recovery. On account of lack of infrastructure and manpower, regular courts were not able to cope with the speed in adjudication of recovery cases. In the light of recommendations of the Tiwari Committee, special tribunals came to be set up under the provisions of the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 for recovery of huge accumulated NPAs of the bank loans. On the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee and Andhyarujina Committee, SARFAESI Act was enacted to empower banks and financial institutions to take possession of the securities and to sell them without the intervention of the Court. In this regard, reference may be made to the following observations of this Court in the case of Satyawati Tondon:

12 (2004) 4 SCC 311
13 (2010) 8 SCC 110

“1…With a view to give impetus to the industrial development of the country, the Central and State Governments encouraged the banks and other financial institutions to formulate liberal policies for grant of loans and other financial facilities to those who wanted to set up new industrial units or expand the existing units. Many hundred thousand took advantage of easy financing by the banks and other financial institutions but a large number of them did not repay the amount of loan, etc. Not only this, they instituted frivolous cases and succeeded in persuading the civil courts to pass orders of injunction against the steps taken by banks and financial institutions to recover their dues. Due to lack of adequate infrastructure and non-availability of manpower, the regular courts could not accomplish the task of expeditiously adjudicating the cases instituted by banks and other financial institutions for recovery of their dues. As a result, several hundred crores of public money got blocked in unproductive ventures.

2. In order to redeem the situation, the Government of India constituted a committee under the Chairmanship of Shri T. Tiwari to examine the legal and other difficulties faced by banks and financial institutions in the recovery of their dues and suggest remedial measures. The Tiwari Committee noted that the existing procedure for recovery was very cumbersome and suggested that special tribunals be set up for recovery of the dues of banks and financial institutions by following a summary procedure. The Tiwari Committee also prepared a draft of the proposed legislation which contained a provision for disposal of cases in three months and conferment of power upon the Recovery Officer for expeditious execution of orders made by adjudicating bodies.

xx xx xx

16. Thus, the Act intends to provide remedy in respect of pre – existing loans. The interpretation that the Act will apply only to future debt transactions defeats the very purpose of law of reducing the non-performing assets. This object is clearly mentioned in the Statement of Objects and Reasons. As noted in the case of Satyaivati Tondon amount of rupees one lakh twenty thousand crores was due to the banks in the year 2001 which had adversely affected the economy of the country. Obviously, the Act is intended to recover the said pre-existing loans by the machinery provided under the SARFAESI Act. The pre-existing loans are not excluded from the purview of the Act. Similarly, the object of notifying the financial institution in question is to enable such institution to avail the provisions of SARFAESI Act in respect of existing loans. This salient object of the Act does not appear to have been noticed in Subash Chandra Panda.”

42) We may also reproduce the following discussion from that judgment which completely answers most of the arguments raised by the learned counsel for the respondents:

“17. Further, the settled principle of interpretation that while the statute affecting the substantive rights is presumed to be prospective, a statute changing the forum of remedy and the procedure is retrospective has also not been kept in mind. These principles are the basis of the view taken in the Unique Engineering Works and Pradeep Kumar Gupta. The said considerations are valid and legitimate, supported by ample authority of binding precedents of the Apex Court, to which reference may be made and relevant observations extracted:

1. Rafiquennessa v. Lal Bahadur Chetri, AIR 1964 SC “9….. Mr. Chatterjee has relied upon the well-

known observations made by Wright, J. in (Re Athlumney ex parte or Wilson (1898) 2 QBD

547) when the learned Judge said that it is a general rule that when the legislature alters the rights of parties by taking away or conferring any right of action, its enactments, unless in express terms they apply to pending actions, do not affect them. He added that there was one exception to that rule, namely that where enactments merely affect procedure and do not extend to rights of action, they have been held to apply to existing rights. In order to make the statement of the law relating to the relevant rule of construction which has to be adopted in dealing with the effect of statutory provisions in this connection, we ought to add that retrospective operation of a statutory provision can be inferred even in cases where such retroactive operation appears to be clearly implicit in the provision construed in the context where it occurs. In other words, a statutory provision is held to be retroactive either when it is so declared by express terms, or the intention to make it retroactive clearly follows from the relevant words and the context in which they occur.” (emphasis added)”

43) The aforesaid discussion, thus, leads us to conclude that respondent No.1 would be treated as ‘borrower’ within the meaning of Section 2(1)(f) of the SARFAESI Act; the arrangement would be classified as ‘security arrangement’ under Section 2(1) (zb); the agreements created ‘security interest’ under Section 2(1) (zf); and the appellant became ‘secured creditor’ within the meaning of Section 2(1)(zd) of SARFAESI Act.

44) As a result, we hold that judgment of the High Court is erroneous and set aside the same. This appeal is allowed. No orders need to be passed in the contempt petitions, which stand disposed of.

………………………………………J.

(A.K. SIKRI) ………………………………………J.

(ASHOK BHUSHAN) NEW DELHI;

FEBRUARY 23, 2018.

Supreme Court Judgement Against Multi-National Chartered Accounting Firms

MASTI

The Supreme Court judgement lays down law on the exercise of power under Section 21 of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 (‘CA Act’) to initiate investigation against Multi-National Accounting Firms (MAFs) and Indian Chartered Accountancy Firms (ICAFs) having arrangement with such MAFs for breach of Code of Professional Conduct under the CA Act and also to take penal action by way of cancellation of permission granted to them by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI)

REPORTABLE

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CIVIL APPELLATE/ORIGINAL JURISDICTION

CIVIL APPEAL NO. 2422 OF 2018
(ARISING OUT OF SPECIAL LEAVE PETITION (CIVIL) NO.1808 OF
2016)

S. SUKUMAR …APPELLANT

VERSUS
THE SECRETARY, INSTITUTE OF CHARTERED
ACCOUNTANTS OF INDIA & ORS. …RESPONDENTS

WITH

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 991 OF 2013

CENTRE FOR PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION …PETITIONER

VERSUS
UNION OF INDIA & ORS. …RESPONDENTS

JUDGMENT

ADARSH KUMAR GOEL, J.

Signature Not Verified Digitally signed by MAHABIR SINGH

1. Leave granted in SLP (Civil) No.1808 of 2016 filed against the order dated 3rd August, 2015 of the High Court of Karnataka in Writ Petition No.17959 of 2012. The petition before the High Court sought direction for exercise of power under Section 21 of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 (‘CA Act’) to initiate investigation against Multi-National Accounting Firms (MAFs) and Indian Chartered Accountancy Firms (ICAFs) having arrangement with such MAFs for breach of Code of Professional Conduct under the CA Act and also to take penal action by way of cancellation of permission granted to them by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI). Since the issue raised in Writ Petition (Civil) No.991 of 2013 is identical, both the matters have been heard together. In the Writ Petition, some other connected issues have also been raised to which reference will be made in due course.

The Issue

2. The issue raised in the appeal arising out of Karnataka High Court Judgment and the Writ Petition filed directly in this Court is:

Whether the MAFs are operating in India in violation of law in force in a clandestine manner, and no effective steps are being taken to enforce the said law. If so, what orders are required to be passed to enforce the said law.

The Pleadings

3. Briefly, the averments in the High Court writ petition are: The MAFs are illegally operating in India and providing Accounting, Auditing, Book Keeping and Taxation Services. They are operating with the help of ICAFs illegally. Operations of such entities are, inter alia, in violation of Section 224 of the Companies Act, 1956, Sections 25 and 29 of the CA Act, the Code of Conduct laid down by the ICAI. Reference has been made to the Report dated 15 th September, 2003 of Study Group of the ICAI on the subject (hereinafter referred to as ‘Study Group Report’). The Study Group was constituted by the Council of the ICAI in July, 1994 to examine attempts of MAFs to operate in India without formal registration with the ICAI and without being subject to any discipline and control. This was in the wake of liberalization policy and signing of GATT by India. It was noted that the bodies corporate formed for management consultancy services were being used as a vehicle for procuring professional work for sister firms of Chartered Accountants (CAs). Members of ICAI were associating with such bodies as Directors, Managers etc. to provide escape route to MAFs. CA functions must be discharged by animate persons and not in anim bodies.

4. The concerns of various segments of CAs noted by the Study Group are :

“(a) Sharing fees with non-members;

(b) Networking and consolidation of Indian firms;

(c) Need to review the advertisement aspect;

(d) Multi disciplinary firms with other professionals;

(e) Commercial presence of multi-national accounting firms;

(f) Impact of similarity of names between accountancy firms and MAFs/Corporates engaged in MSC-Scope for reform and regulation;

(g) Strengthening knowledge base and skills;

(h) Facilitating growth of Indian CA firms & Indian CAs internationality;

(i) Perspective of the Government, corporate world and regulatory bodies and role of ICAI in shaping the view;

(j) Introduction of joint audit system;

(k) Recognition of qualifications under Clause (4) of

Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 for the purpose of promoting partnership with any persons other than the CA in practice within India or abroad;

(l) Review the concept of exclusive areas for the keeping in view the larger public interest involved so as to include internal audit within it;

(m) Conditionalities prescribed by certain financial
institutions/Governmental agencies insisting
appointment of select few firms as

auditors/concurrent auditors/consultants for their borrowers.”

5. The Study Group considered whether goal should be to focus on ethics or growth of the profession with Code of Ethics being guiding points and not barriers. Further issues were what should be the regulatory regime; whether networking could be allowed to benefit Indian CAs; whether MAFs may be required to furnish particulars about their ownership, persons responsible and other financial particulars. It was noted that the Code of Ethics under First Schedule to the CA Act prohibits sharing of fee with persons other than members of the ICAI. Only cost for obtaining assistance/advice to international affiliates could be given. Indian Firms with International Affiliates (IFIA) may be required to adhere to bench mark in regard to audit procedures, quality standards etc. Decision making and real control should be with Indian firms.

Number of audits qua each partner should be fixed. Mentioning of affiliation with any person not member of ICAI may amount to advertising which was not permissible. It could be permitted if entities were registered with ICAI. It was also suggested that concept of Multi disciplinary firms was required to be explored for rendering integrated service with suitable safeguards. Steps to upgrade knowledge were also suggested. However, it was suggested that commercial presence of MAFs should not be allowed de facto or de jure. Reference was made to Surbanes Oxley Act, 2002 in USA making a foreign public accounting firm preparing audit report to be accountable to the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board and the Securities and Exchange Commission. Thus, MAFs could not be allowed without registration with ICAI. Non Indian CAs should not authenticate any financial statement of any Indian entity. MAFs’ claim to provide audit services through affiliates amounts to indirect entry in India without requisite reciprocity for Indian accountancy firms. It was suggested that even where MAFs affiliate with Indian CA, same brand should not be allowed as in other services. Use of name identical to MAFs was brand building exercise which gave impression that Indian CA firm was not independent. Separation of identity was a must. Use of statutory visiting cards etc. must display separation of identity. Under collective label of management consultancy services, CA services should not be allowed as Code of Ethics for auditors cannot be enforced in this manner. Audit cannot be done in non professional way.

Advertisement and publicity was harmful to the cause of the profession so that user relies only on real worth of services. It is further noted that though the CAs are not allowed to share fees or profits with anyone other than a member of the institute, some of the members were lending their names to the MAFs who are non-members and enabling them to illegally operate in the field of Chartered Accountancy and sharing fees and profits with them.

Indian CAs have not been provided reciprocity in the countries to which the MAFs belong as per Section 29 of the CA Act.

6. Reference has also been made to a report on operations of MAFs in India dated 29th July, 2011 submitted by Expert Group of the ICAI (for short Expert Group Report) in the wake of the ‘Satyam Scam’, and decisions of the ICAI laying down the Code of Conduct.

The Expert Group Report noted that the MAFs are rendering services which are rendered by the CAs in terms of Section 2(2) of the CA Act such as accountancy, auditing, professional services about matters of accounting procedure, presentation or certification of financial facts or data. The MAFs are corporates/juridical persons. They solicit professional work in international brand name. They have registered Indian CA firms with ICAI with the same brand names which are their integral part.

There is no regulatory regime for their accountability. Thus, the principle of reciprocity under Section 29 of the CA Act, Section 25 prohibiting corporates from chartered accountancy practice and Code of Ethics prohibiting advertisement and fee sharing are flouted. The MAFs also violate FDI policy in the field of accounting, auditing, book keeping, taxation and legal services. Detailed reference to the said report will be made in the later part of the judgment.

7. The stand of the ICAI in the form of a status report filed before the High Court is that 161 out of 171 firms were examined by the High Powered Committee in pursuance of report of the Expert Group dated 29th July, 2011 with regard to alleged violations and some of the cases were referred to the Director (Discipline) for further action. Remaining 10 firms were in the process of being examined. Thus, the ICAI has already taken action on its part.

8. The High Court observed that in view of the stand of the ICAI, no further action was necessary and disposed of the writ petition.

9. In the writ petition filed directly in this Court, apart from the averments noted above, it has been stated that PricewaterhouseCoopers Private Limited (PwCPL) and their network audit firms operating in India, apart from other violations, have indulged in violation of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy, Reserve Bank of India Act (RBI)/Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) which requires investigation. Firms operating under the brand name of PwCPL received huge sums from abroad in violation of law and applicable policies but the concerned authorities have failed to take appropriate action. M/s. Pricewater House, Bangalore was the Auditor of the erstwhile Satyam Computer Services Limited (Satyam) for more than eight years but failed to discover the biggest accounting scandal which came to light only on confession of its Chairman in January, 2009. The said scandal attracted penalty of US Dollars 7.5 Million (approx. Rs.38 crores) from the US Regulators apart from other sanctions. Since certification by Auditors is of great importance in the matter of payment of subsidies, export incentives, grants, share of government revenue and taxes, sharing of costs and profits in PPP (Public Private Partnership) contracts etc., oversight of professionals engaged in such certification has to be as per law of the land. Accordingly, even though investigation was sought by the petitioner vide letter dated 1 st July, 2013, no satisfactory investigation has been done.

10. PwCPL is the brand under which member firms of PricewaterhouseCoopers International Limited, U.K. (PwCIL), an English private company provides professional services in respect of audit, tax and advisory services. ‘PwC India’ firms are network member firms of the PwCIL. There are 10 Audit Firms namely Price Waterhouse (PW), Lovelock and Lewes (LL), Price Waterhouse Bangalore, Price Waterhouse & Co. Bangalore, Price Waterhouse & Co. Kolkata, Price Waterhouse Delhi, Price Waterhouse & Co. Delhi, Price Waterhouse & Co. Chennai, Dalal & Shah Mumbai and Dalal & Shah Ahmedabad, besides a private limited company, namely PwCPL, who are collectively referred to as “PwC India” firms and who operate from various metros including Delhi. Their clients include Government departments, Public Sector organizations, ministries for which huge payments are made to them. They are engaged in auditing/certifying statutory compliances. They have violated Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Policy, RBI master circulars, FEMA Act and Rules. According to Notification dated May 3, 2000, under Section 47(2)(h) of FEMA Act, no person resident outside India can make investment by way of contribution to the capital of a firm or a proprietary concern or any association of persons in India without permission of the RBI. In violation of the said provision, PwC India entities received Rs.240 crores in Financial Year 2010-2011. The Chairman of PwC India confirmed the receipt of funds from Global Network. Receipt of Rs.22.90 crores in the Financial Year ended March, 2010 is reflected in the balance sheet and profit and loss account of the PwCPL. Receipt of Rs.7.97 crores is reflected in the balance sheet and profit and loss account of Dalal & Shah, Mumbai. This apart, approximately Rs.210 crores was received by PwCPL, Price Waterhouse (PW) and Lovelock and Lewes (LL). However, no action was taken for receipt of these sums in violation of law. A sum of Rs.41 crores was received by Price Waterhouse & Company, Kolkata to acquire another audit firm, Dalal & Shah, Mumbai through a circuitous route by giving interest free loans to its four partners to enable them to invest the said amount in Dalal & Shah, Mumbai in violations of the RBI Guidelines, FEMA policy and ICAI Regulations.

11. There is also violation of Companies Act. Insurance premium has been paid by three firms of PwC for benefit of other member firms which is illegal. Lovelock and Lewes (LL), a member firm of PwC India failed to point out the high level of NPAs, in its audit report, resulting in Global Trust Bank (GTB) being forced to merge with Oriental Bank of Commerce in 2004. This happened due to accumulated losses of GTB. LL was also found guilty of manipulating share prices and falsification of accounts by Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO). PwC has been found guilty of accounting scandals outside India.

12. After making the above averments, the petition suggests that falsification of accounts should be made a non-bailable offence to ensure effective governance and to avoid potential loss of revenue to the public exchequer. An independent regulator should be appointed for the auditors. Prayer has been made for investigation into the above allegations against the PwCPL and their network Audit Firms operating in India sharing the brand name of PwC.

13. To sum up, the case of the petitioners is:

(i) The MAFs violate provisions of Sections 25 and 29 of the CA Act, the Code of Conduct laid down by the ICAI, Companies Act, the FDI Policy as highlighted in report of the Study Group of the ICAI dated 15th September, 2003 and the report of the Expert Group of the ICAI dated 29th July, 2011. Regulatory framework was required to be re-visited to cover the gap in the existing regulatory framework and challenge on account of operations of MAFs as noted in the said reports. Audit functions were required to be separated with a separate oversight body.

(ii) PwC Services BV, Netherlands in violation of law, made investment of Rs.41.42 crores through PwC, Kolkata to acquire Dalal & Shah, Mumbai which is an audit firm through a circuitous route by giving interest free loans to its partners allowing them to invest the said amount with Dalal & Shah, Mumbai.

This is clear offence under the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act. It is also an offence under the FEMA, the Chartered Accountants Act, and RBI Master Circulars.

(iii) The PwC Services, BV Netherlands remitted Rs.240 crores to various PwC entities in India for ‘enhancement of skills’. Payment of Income Tax on the said amounts does not legalise the remittance. The remittance shows that the foreign company has control over Indian Firms and is thus indirectly running chartered accountancy business in India and also getting its return on the said amount.

(iv) There is falsification of accounts with regard to insurance premium for a 280 crore policy by PwC firms in India in violation of Companies Act, 1956.

(v) PwC is responsible for the violations by

Satyam scam, failure of the Global Trust

Bank (GTB) and UB Group (Kingfisher

Airlines) for which action ought to be taken.

(vi) SFIO and CBI have found PwC guilty. Still, the PwC firms have not been prosecuted and have been awarded Government contracts such as GST Suvidha Provider for GST Network, consultancy contract by the Kerala Government for preparing master plan to connect Kochi with industrial corridor of south India.

14. The prayers of the petitioners on above basis are:

(a) ICAI must take immediate action for deregistration of these firms in terms of their own report of 2011 which they had themselves accepted.

(b) These audit firms ought to be prosecuted for offences under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.

(c) PwC firms ought to be prosecuted under FEMA, 1999 regarding the payment of Rs.240 crores and Rs.42 crores by the ED.

(d) PwC Kolkata firm and partners need to be prosecuted under the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act.

(e) Investigation and action on part of ICAI and Ministry of Corporate Affairs with regard to the falsification of accounts and wrong accounting of the insurance policy of Rs.280 crores that was utilized by PwC Bangalore without paying any premium.

(f) A CBI investigation into the receipt of Rs.240 crores so that the real purpose of such receipts is known and necessary action may be taken.

High Powered Committee Expert Group Report dated 29 th July, 2011

15. In its report dated 29th July, 2011 on Operation of Multinational Network Accounting Firms (MAFs) in India, the expert group constituted by the ICAI examined the issues concerning operation of MAFs in India. The group was constituted in the context of corporate fraud of high magnitude revealed by the statement of Chairman of Satyam. The ICAI sought curbing of undesirable activities/operations of MAFs. The Ministry held a meeting with the representatives of the ICAI to identify the issues. Thereafter, the following issues were referred to the Expert Group by the High Powered Committee of the ICAI:

“(a) Manner in which certain Indian CA firms, hold out to public that they are actually MAFs in India, the manner in which assignments are allotted, determination of nexus/linkage. The representatives of certain Indian CA firms carry two visiting cards one of Indian CA firm and another of a multinational entity. They represent the multinational entity and seek work for Indian CA firm.

(b) Name used by auditor in/his report – The basic question was whether the auditors of M/s. Satyam had correctly mentioned the name of their firm in the audit report.

(c) Terms and conditions and cost payable for use of international brand name – No international firm will allow its name to be used by all and sundry. The question is what is the consideration whether it is determined as a percentage of fee or profits and whether it is within the framework of Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, Regulations framed, thereunder Code of Conduct and Ethics.

(d) Nature of extra benefits accrued to the Indian CA firms having foreign affiliation.

(e) How the MAFs placed their foot in India – Long back in a meeting with RBI it was informed that the MAFs entered in India to set up representative offices. No documents are available as regards the terms and conditions set out while granting them permission to operate in India.

However, the RBI vide its letter
No.Ref.DBS.ARS.No.744/08:91:008 (ICAI)/
2003-2004 dated 23rd March, 2004 inter

alia, mentioned that “RBI has not permitted any foreign audit firm to set up office or to carry out any activity in India under the current exchange control regulations.”

(f) Contravention of permission originally granted by Government – What was the original permission given for these firms to enter into India and subsequently whether they are adhering to the terms and conditions of that permission? If contravention was found to take up with Government/FIPB – for approaching Government or FIPB, ICAI must have information as to the nature of permission given. As already mentioned, no documents are available indicating the nature of permission granted. What is the current position of international trade in accounting and related services? The opening up of accounting and related services, can be linked to reciprocal opening up by developed countries.

(g) Additional powers required by ICAI to curb the malpractices – If under the existing legislation, ICAI does not have enough powers to curb this practice, whether they would need more powers. A separate proposal for amendment of Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 has been sent by the Council to the Government seeking additional powers.”

16. It was noted that some of the MAFs are active in India and are rendering services which are provided by CAs without registration with the Institute. Certain MAFs are corporate or juridical persons with significant commercial presence in India and are rendering assurance services. They solicit professional work including audit work by including international brand name in their name. With the same brand names certain Indian CA firms were registered with the ICAI. They hold out to public that they are actually MAFs in India, whereas to the ICAI they hold out that they are purely Indian CA firms having no relationship with foreign entities. The government, regulators and the ICAI must ensure that such wrong impression is not permitted. Entities other than CAs in practice should be prohibited from providing auditing and assurance services in absence of their regulation under a law. Indian CAs are not getting mutual treatment in other countries, while the MAFs continue to operate in India through the Indian CA firms. Entities having similar name as that of MAFs, which entered through automatic/FIPB route, are rendering Chartered Accountancy services contrary to the policy of not permitting Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the field of accounting, auditing and book keeping services, taxation services and legal services. The Institute requested the Department of Company Affairs to take the following action:

“(i) for reviewing the existing situation for ensuring reciprocal advantage in favour of the Indian accounting profession;

(ii) to take appropriate action against MAFs if
found to be in violation including
cancellation/revoking/ withdrawal the

permission already granted to such foreign entities;

(iii) to ensure that the non-compliance of the terms & conditions of the permission granted by the Government to such MAFs is dealt with effectively;

(iv) to prohibit the MAFs/consultancy firms which have set up commercial presence either as a corporate entity or otherwise from defying the restrictions in terms of the Government policy both in letter & spirit; and

(v) to ensure that the names of the companies which are same or similar to the names of MAFs should not be allowed to continue to operate in India.”

17. The Institute called for information from the Indian CA firms perceived to be having international affiliations to examine whether they are functioning within the framework of CA profession. The exercise resulted in finding out 171 names of firms but the said firms were reluctant to submit copies of agreements with foreign entities and their tax returns. Certain CA firms submitted the documents by masking certain portions contained in their agreements, partnership deeds and assessment orders/income tax returns claiming confidentiality and commercially sensitive nature of the documents. Some of the firms did not give the details.

18. The group considered network groups as ‘A’ to ‘D’. With regard to ‘A’, it was observed that the multinational entity had permitted the participating firms in the network to use the brand name. The relationship between members and firms and how these are governed from the same offices under common management and control was not disclosed. The linkage was clear from the data disclosed on the website. Firms received financial grants from non-CA firms contrary to the prohibition for the members of the Institute to receive any part of profits from non-member of the Institute. The networking firms have made remittances to a multinational entity, sharing their revenue purportedly towards subscription fees, technology cost and administration cost etc. However, the break-ups of costs were not furnished. The cost excluded marketing, publicity and advertising which was not allowed as per the CA Act. The data was not furnished to support the claim that remittances are only in respect of such matters and not related to the volume of business generated through the efforts of the multinational entities. A total and full disclosure was not made in spite of repeated directions. The domain name used by all the firms in the network was identical to the name of the multinational entity which supports the view that they hold out that these firms were part of international network. Some of the firms operate from the same premises from where their international affiliate also operates.

They share the same telephone and fax numbers. They share human resources with other firms. Articled Assistants are also shared without following the restrictions imposed by the ICAI.

19. With regard to group ‘B’, the multinational entity had executed sub-licence agreements with the Indian firms. They stated that they are not sharing their fees or profits with any multinational entity but reimbursement of costs relating to certain central facilities and levies are made annually. The CA firms used name of the international entity in their E-mail IDs. The E-mail ID and the domain name resembled the name of the multinational entity. Thus, in the same manner, as in respect of network ‘A’ the CA firms in network ‘B’ hold out that they are part of the international network.

They share same premises, same telephone and fax number. They made remittances annually to the multinational entity sharing their revenue with multinational entity which they have claimed to be towards reimbursement of cost towards central facilities and levies.

They do not provide break-up which may show that the cost included marketing, publicity and advertising.

20. The firms in the Network ‘C’ are also using the MAF’s name as part of domain name in their E-mail IDs, which is displayed in the visiting cards of the partners of the firms.

21. Similar was the position with regard to Network ‘D’. The firms in Network ‘D’ also used the name of multinational entity as domain name.

22. The Council has prescribed maximum limit for statutory audit and tax audit which a member in practice can undertake in a year.

But, by sub-contracting the work to other firms, the firms are undertaking more than the prescribed work leading to deterioration of quality of performance.

23. The member firms are required to refer the work among themselves. In respect of some firms, referral fee is payable and receivable. Agreements also provided for use of name and logo.

Payment/receipt of referral fee is prohibited as per code of conduct applicable to CAs.

24. The group noted that firms have names identical to the names of MAFs operating in India but in absence of complete data, a conclusive finding could not be recorded as to violation of the CA Act with regard to sharing of fees or profits with non-members, securing business through solicitation/publicity. International affiliations with entities which do not follow the same Code of Ethics as applicable to Indian CA firms vitiate the level playing field with other Indian CA firms. Control of the Indian CA firm is effectively placed in the hands of non-members/companies and foreign entities.

25. Some of the observations in the report are:

“4.2 The Council of ICAI has deliberated that some of the MAFs are active in India and are rendering services such as assurance services, taxation services, etc. normally provided by Chartered Accountants, without registration with the Institute and, without being subject to any disciplinary and regulatory control on the ethical and independent issues. Certain MAFs either as corporate and other juridical persons with the Institute brand name were given permission by the other regulators/Government for doing consultancy business in India. These entities have established significant commercial presence in India and are rendering assurance services. These private limited companies in certain cases solicit professional work including audits by using the international brand name and projecting large experience, infrastructure and international database including turnover, manpower size, technical expertise and experience in other countries.

These private limited companies work under the name and style/trade name/brand name of well known MAFs and in certain cases also co-brand multinational name with certain Indian CA including by making presentations and organizing mega public programmes. In fact these firms and individuals employ with them as Directors or partners or in other capacity and hold out to the public that they are MAFs. In view of their well known brand and presence internationally the corporate sector, the Government and the society at large and sometimes even the regulators carry a wrong impression as if these private limited companies are in fact MAFs and the services being provided by these private limited companies are actually services being provided by such MAFs.

4.3 Certain Indian CA firms and private limited companies associated with them hold out to public that they are actually MAFs in India whereas to the ICAI/regulators, they hold out that they are purely Indian CA firms having no relationship with foreign entities.

4.4 It is important for the Government, regulators and the ICAI to ensure that such wrong impression is not permitted and all entities other than Chartered Accountants in practice and CA firms should be actually prohibited directly or indirectly from providing auditing and assurance services, as these are required to be regulated in the public interest. The very objective of having the profession relating to accountancy under specific Act of Parliament, incorporating therein a strict disciplinary and ethical code was to ensure that there is no dilution of the professional standards and services are provided in a regulated manner.

4.5 In certain cases, joint venture agreements, MOUs, foreign collaboration agreements, shareholders agreements, private equity participations and side letters are exchanged between parties mandating appointment auditors as prescribed by international parent. In certain cases public sector undertakings, Government departments/Central and State Governments advertise for various professional services wherein the basic eligibility requirement tends to favour Multinational Network Accounting firms or other corporate entities. It has also been observed that auditors have been replaced by Indian CA firms networked with Multinational Network Accounting firms apparently for no professional reasons.

4.6 The ICAI has been pursuing with the accounting bodies in different countries for recognition of its qualification and relaxation for its members for entry level requirements like appearance in certain papers such as accounting, auditing as well as training requirements giving due credit to the ICAI’s educational and training curriculum. In addition, the Indian Chartered Accountants face various invisible/non-professional barriers like visa, citizenship and residency requirements, procedural impediments to provide services in such countries. While the Institute has been pursuing vigorously for recognition of its qualification-for ensuring level playing field for Indian Chartered Accountants whereas the countries concerned are not showing a sense of seriousness and urgency which these matters deserve. Indian Chartered Accountants are not getting a fair, reasonable and mutual treatment which they deserve. Since MAFs, in corporate or other form, are already commercially present and operating in India on the basis of holding out as MAFs/the Indian CA Firms and private limited companies may be de jure owned and managed to Indian Chartered Accountants, whereas de facto these are fully governed MAFs having headquarters in developed countries, who are denying a level playing field to Indian Chartered Accountants in their country by the restrictions as explained herein. As a result the negotiating capacity of India accounting services favouring the Indian accountants has been significantly reduced. In fact, this has also adversely affected the bargaining capacity of the Government of India for Indian accounting profession under the ongoing negotiations under the WTO/General Agreement of Trade in Services (GATS).

xxxx 4.8 However, it has been noticed that the entities having similar name as that of MAFs, which entered through automatic/FIPB route for rendering management consultancy services (as defined in CPC

865), are transgressing the permission so granted and are rendering taxation services (CPC 863), auditing, accounting and book keeping services (CPC 862) and legal services (CPC 861). Instances brought to the notice of the Study Team constituted by the Council in April, 1995 and the Study Group constituted by the Council in February, 2002 are placed at Annexure-III. Extracts taken from the website pages of some of the MAFs are given at Annexure-IV.

4.9 It is noted that as per the policy of the Government of India, Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is not permitted in the field of accounting, auditing and book keeping services, taxation services and legal services and no commitment had been made by India for opening of such services under the WTO/GATS. However, some entities were not only providing services through their own establishment (signifying their commercial presence i.e., Mode-3) in India but also through service providers in India particularly for those services like auditing which cannot be rendered by them under the relevant laws of the country.

xxx 4.16 The 171 firms from whom documents/details were called for by and large furnished the documents that were called for. However, certain CA firms have submitted the documents by masking certain portions contained in their agreements, partnership deeds and assessment orders/income tax returns claiming confidentiality and commercially sensitive nature of the documents. The financial details were asked with a view to confirm compliance of these firms with the code of ethics in regard to sharing of fees, inward and outward remittances, nature of expenses, financial dealing with non-members, nature of payment, nature of revenue sharing of fees belonging to non-members and to identify activities not permitted within the framework of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, other laws including Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 1976, Code of Ethics and Conduct. Masking/omission of certain portions was construed as non-compliance with the directions of the Institute, and such firms which had masked certain portions were asked to additionally submit copies of their financial statements i.e. Income & Expenditure Account and Balance Sheets or Statement of Affairs including tax audit reports for the last 3 years. However, these firms, instead of submitting unmasked and complete information, had been questioning the logic/reasoning behind asking such data, which according to the firms are commercially sensitive/confidential. Despite reminders, some of the firms had not submitted unmasked/complete details.

xxx 5A.8 Observations :

(i) The multinational entity has granted permission to the participating firms in the network to use the brand name. This is notwithstanding the fact whether the firms have signed the License Agreement with the entity or not. The relationship between members and firms how these are governed from same offices under common management and control is not disclosed. The data disclosed on the website, however, clearly brings out the linkage.

(ii) Though some of the participating firms in the Network ‘A’ have not signed, the Verein document of Name License Agreement yet while making remittances to the multinational entity, the revenue of the entire network is taken into account.

(iii) The Verein document makes a mention of Supplemental Regulation but while submitting documents to the Institute the firms in Network ‘A’ have not submitted a copy thereof.

(iv) The networking firms in Network ‘A’ have received financial grants from a non-CA firm. A member of the Institute is prohibited from receiving any part of profits from a non-member of the Institute. Such an act on the part of a member/firm seems to be in violation of Item (3) of Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act 1949.

(v) The networking firms in Network ‘A’ have made remittances to the multinational entity, sharing their revenue with multinational entity, which they have claimed to be towards subscription fees, technology cost including cost of licenses – obtained for software, budgeted expenses, cost of administration etc. However, the firms have not provided break-up/computation and whether the cost includes cost towards marketing, publicity and advertising the products and services in India as well as abroad and any other cost which is not allowed as per the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, Regulations framed thereunder and Code of Ethics. The firms in Network ‘A’ have also not furnished any data in support of their claim that the money remitted by them to the multinational entity is in respect of above matters only and that the same in no way relates to the volume of business generated through the efforts of the multinational entity and through use of brand name. A total and full disclosure in this regard has not been made in spite of repeated directions by the High Powered Committee/Group on the basis of directions of the Council.

(vi) The Verein document lay an obligation on the member firms in Network A “to make every reasonable effort to refer clients to other member firms”. A member of the Institute is prohibited from securing any professional business by means which are not open to a Chartered Accountant. However, they are required to follow the networking guidelines of the Institute. Such an act on the part of a member/firm seems to be in violation of Item (S) 1 of Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.

(vii) The networking firms in Network A and all their personnel are using the domain name identical to the name of the multinational entity in their email IDs and the same is displayed in their visiting cards. This clearly supports holding out by these firms in Network A that they are part of the international Network A of MAFs. Some of these firms operate from the same premises from where their international affiliate also operates. They share the same telephone and fax nos. thus establishing that they are one and the same. The Indian firms in Network A and MAFs are de facto the same entities providing assurance, management and related services and as such their operations seem to circumvent the provisions of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 and Regulations framed thereunder. A member of the Institute is prohibited from disclosing the affiliation with any international entity. In this regard, the Council, at its 172nd meeting held in January, 1995, while agreeing with the recommendation of the then Committee on Ethical Standards and Unjustified Removal of Auditors that the use of expression/words, “In Association with ….”, Associates of ……..”, Correspondents of ……” etc. on the stationery, letter-heads, visiting cards and professional documents of the firm of CAs was not permissible in view of the provisions of Item (7) of Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act,1949, decided that it should not be permitted irrespective of whether the name sought to be used is the name of an Indian firm or a foreign firm.

(viii) The networking firms in Network A are sharing their human resources with other firms in the network. However, it has been possible to ascertain whether the articled assistances are also being rotated among the firms. It may be mentioned that articled assistants are assigned to a member, whose obligation is to train them. As such, the articled assistances cannot be allowed to be utilized by any other member. However, to address this issue, there exists a provision under Regulation 54 of the Chartered Accountants, Regulations, 1988 enabling secondment of articled assistances with a view to provide the articled assistants the opportunity of gaining practical experience in areas where the principal may not be in a position to provide the same. Such secondment is allowed under the Regulations with certain restrictions and conditionalities and the same is required to be sent to the Institute for records within thirty days from the date of commencement of training on secondment.

xxxx 5B.7 Observations :

(i) The CA firms in Network B and all their personnel are using the domain name identical to the name of the multinational entity in their email IDs, and the same is displayed in the visiting cards. This clearly supports holding out by these firms in Network C that they are part of the international Network C of MAFs. Some of these firms operate from the same premises from where their international affiliate also operate. They share the same telephone and fax nos. thus establishing that they are one and the same. The Indian firms in Network B and MAFs are de facto the same entities providing assurance, management and related services and as such their operations seem to circumvent the provisions of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 and Regulations framed thereunder. A member of the Institute is prohibited from disclosing his affiliation with any international entity. In this regard, the Council, at its 172 nd meeting held in January, 1995, while agreeing with the recommendation of the then Committee on Ethical Standards and Unjustified Removal of Auditors that the use of expression/words, “In Association with ……..”, “Associates of …………..”, Correspondents of …………” etc. on the stationery, letter-heads, visiting cards and professional documents of the firm of CAs., was not permissible in view of the provisions of Item (7) of Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, decided that it should not be permitted irrespective of whether the name ought to be used is the name of an Indian firm or a foreign firm.

(ii) The CA firms in Network B have made remittances annually to the multinational entity sharing their revenue with multinational entity which they have claimed to be towards reimbursement of cost towards central facilities and levies. However, the firms have not provided break-up/computation and whether the cost includes cost towards marketing/publicity and advertising the products and services in India as well as abroad and any other cost which is not allowed as per the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, Regulations framed thereunder and the Code of Ethics. The firms in Network B have also not furnished any data in support of their claim that the money remitted by them to the multinational is in respect of above matters only and that the same in no way relates to the vote of business generated through the efforts of the multinational entity and through use of brand name. A total and full disclosure in this regard has not been made in spite of repeated directions by the High Powered Committee/Group on the basis of directions of the Council.

(iii) The networking firms in Network A are sharing their human resources with other firms in the network. However, it has not been possible to ascertain whether the articled assistants are also being rotated among the firms. It may be mentioned that articled assistants are assigned to a member, whose obligation is to train them. As such, the articled assistants cannot be allowed to be utilized by any other member. However, to address this issue, there exists a provision under Regulation, 1988 enabling secondment of articled assistants with a view to provide the articled assistants the opportunity of gaining practical experience in areas where the principal may not be in a position to provide the same. Such secondment is allowed under the Regulations with certain restrictions and conditionalities and the same is required to be sent to the Institute for records within thirty days from the date of commencement of training on secondment.

(iv) The obligations set out in respect of the CA firms in Network B as per the sub-licensee agreement give a clear indication that the CA firms are under the management and supervision of a non-CA firm for matters such as admission of partners, merger, purchase of assets, etc. xxxx 5C.4 Observations :

(i) The CA firms in Network C have amounts to the multinational entity, which they claim to be on account of actual and allocable cost for activities and services provided, however, the firms have not provided break up/computation and whether the cost includes cost towards marketing, publicity and advertising of the products and services in India as well as abroad and any other cost which is not allowed as per the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, Regulations framed thereunder and Code of Ethics. The firms in Network C have also not furnished any data in support of their claim that the money remitted by them to the multinational entity is in respect of above matters only and that the same in no way relates to the volume of business generated through the efforts of the multinational entity and through use of brand name. A total and full disclosure in this regard has not been made in spite of repeated directions by the High Powered Committee/Group on the basis of directions of the Council.

(ii) The firms in Network C have admitted that the global network identifies broad market opportunities, develops strategies, strengthens network’s internal products and promotes international brand. The member firms in India also gain access to brand and marketing materials developed by their overseas affiliate. This amounts to indirectly soliciting professional work and securing professional business by means which are not open to a Chartered Accountant.

(iii) The firms in Network C have mentioned that they have joined the network and formed different firms in different cities to overcome the limitation on number of partners.

(iv) The network C firms have entered into an agreement for sharing of resources. Sharing of human resources includes articled assistants also, as confirmed by one of their then partners, in a statement given by him to the members of the Committee. It may be mentioned that articled assistants are assigned to a member, whose obligation is to train them. As such the articled assistants cannot be allowed to be utilized by any other member. However, to address this issue, there exists a provision under Regulation 54 of the Chartered Accountants Regulations, 1988 enabling secondment of articled assistants with a view to provide the articled assistants the opportunity of gaining practical experience in areas where the principal may not be in a position to provide the same. Such secondment is allowed under the Regulations with certain restrictions and conditionalities and the same is required to be sent to the Institute for records within thirty days from the date of commencement of training on secondment.

(v) The firms in the Network C and all its personnel are using the MAFs name as part of domain name in their email IDs, which is displayed in the visiting cards of the partners of these firms as well as the CA employees. This clearly supports holding out by these firms in Network C that they are part of the International Network C of MAFs. Some of these firms operate from the same premises from where their international affiliate also operates. They share the same telephone and fax nos. thus establishing that they are one and the same. The Indian firms and MAFs are de facto the same entities providing assurance/management and related services and as such their operations seem to circumvent the provisions of the Chartered Accountant Act, 1949 and Regulations framed thereunder. A member of the Institute is prohibited from disclosing his affiliation with any International entity. In this regard, the Council, at its 172nd meeting held in January, 1995, while agreeing with the recommendation of then Committee on Ethical Standards and Unjustified Removal of Auditors that the use of expression/words, “In Association with ……..”, “Associates of …………”, Correspondents of ………” etc. on the stationery, letter-heads, visiting cards and professional documents of the firm of CAs, was not permissible in view of the provisions of Item (7) of Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, decided that it should not be permitted irrespective of whether the name sought to be used is the name of an Indian firm or a foreign firm.

(vi) As per the Name License Agreement, the CA firm in Network C shall be liable for and will indemnify the Business Trust against any and availability, loss, damage, cost, legal cost and other expenses of any nature suffered, or incurred by the Business Trust arising out of any dispute against the Business Trust by a third party.

(vii) The service as defined in the agreement with the Trust granting license for use of name, prescribes the services which will be covered by the said Trust and rendered by the CA firm. This includes audit, assurance as well as tax advisory services.

(viii) The letterheads and the visiting cards furnished by the firm in Network C do not mention anywhere that it is a firm of Chartered Accountants.

5D.6 Observations :

(i) The firms in Network D have a management services agreement, technical services agreements, regulations and name license agreements with other entities, copies of which have not been furnished by the firms.

(ii) The firms in Network D and all their personnel have been using the name of multinational entity as domain name in their email IDs, which is displayed in the visiting cards used by the partners of these firms as well as their CA employees. This clearly supports holding out by these firms that they are part of the international Network D of MAFs. Some of these firms operate from the same premises from where their international affiliate also operates. They share the same telephone and fax nos. thus indicating that they are one and the same. The Indian firms and MAFs are de facto the same entities providing assurance, management and related services and as such their operations seem to circumvent the provisions of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 and Regulations framed thereunder. A member of the Institute is prohibited from disclosing his affiliation with any international entity. In this regard, the Council at its 172nd meeting held in January, 1995, while agreeing with the recommendation of the then Committee on Ethical Standards and Unjustified Removal of Auditors that the use of expression/words, “In Association with ……….”, “Associates of …………”, Correspondents of ………” etc. on the stationery, letter-heads, visiting cards and professional documents of the firm of CAs, was not permissible in view of the provisions of Item (7) of Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, decided that it should not be permitted irrespective of whether the name sought to be used is the name of an Indian firm or a foreign firm.

(iii) The firms in the Network D have signed an agreement for sharing of human resources; however, it has not been possible to ascertain whether the articled assistants are assigned to a member, whose obligation is to train them. As such, the articled assistants cannot be allowed to be utilized by any other member. However, to address this issue/there exists a provision under Regulation 54 of the Chartered Accountants Regulations, 1988 enabling secondment assistants with a view to provide the articled assistants the opportunity of gaining practical experience in areas where the principal may not be in a position to provide the same. Such secondment is allowed under the Regulations with certain restrictions and conditionalities and the same is required to be sent to the Institute for records within thirty days from the date of commencement of training on secondment.

(iv) One of the network firms in Network D, though is yet to sign the agreement with the multinational entity, but has already been operating as part of the multinational entity’s network and complies with the obligations.

(v) The amount of remittance made by firms in Network D to the multinational entity (exceeding Rs.XXXX million in a year) has been disclosed. However, the firms in Network D have not provided break up computation and whether the cost includes cost towards marketing, publicity and advertising the products and services in India as well as abroad and any other cost which is not allowed as per the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, Regulations framed thereunder and Code of Ethics. The firms have also not furnished any data in support of their claim that the money remitted by them to the multinational entity is in respect of above matters only and the same in no way relates to the volume of business generated through the efforts of the multinational entity and through use of brand name. A total and full disclosure in this regard has not been made in spite of repeated directions by the High Powered Committee/Group on the basis of directions of the Council.

xxx

6. Findings 6.1 The Committee/Group with a view to ascertain compliance with the various aspects of Code of Ethics had received documents/details listed in para 4.13 hereinabove, from 171 firms. Based on information received, it was found absence of affiliation etc. to

135. Of these, nearly firms submitted data in entirety. Other firms submitted most of the data, such as financial that for various reasons the number of firms actually 73% of the firms submitted the data masking of withholding most of the important data, such as financial figures, profit sharing, capital contribution etc. primarily on the grounds of commercial sensitiveness/confidentiality of the data.

6.2 In the absence of complete set of documents such as complete copy of agreements between some of the Indian CA firms and their international affiliates/network along with annexures referred thereto, networking agreement, internal regulations, service agreements, statute of international affiliate etc. it was not possible to draw conclusive inference as to violation of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 with reference to sharing of fees or profits with non-members, sharing profits of non-members, securing business through means not open to Chartered Accountants, solicitation, direct or indirect publicity etc. This shall require proper examination under the relevant provisions of Sections 21, 22 and Schedules framed thereunder.

6.3 Most of these networks are created/established outside India and are functioning under different set of ethical and regulatory guidelines. The India CA firms having international affiliations are subject to regulatory jurisdiction of ICAI and are required to follow the Code of Ethics applicable to Chartered Accountants in India. However, due to the dichotomy of other entities operating in close association with the Indian CA firms, often permitting common brand name/using of logos, coupled with leveraging on international resources etc., is vitiating the level playing field with other Indian CA firms.

6.4 Most of these firms have a name license agreement to use International brand name. One of the terms of such agreement is that apart from common professional standards etc., the Indian affiliates shall harmonize their policies etc. with the global policies of the network. In this manner, matters such as selection and appointment of partners, acquisition of assets, investment in capital etc. are regulated through the means of such agreements and at time even the representative voting is held by an aligned private limited company rather than the CA firms themselves. As a consequence of this, the control of the Indian CA firms is effectively placed in the hands of non-members/companies foreign entities. The desirability of such a practice from the point of view of independence needs to be examined in the light of Code of Ethics and Schedules to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 and Sections 21 and 22 thereof.

6.5 In respect of some firms with names approved by Institute e.g. “XYZ & Co., Patna”, the partnership deeds sent by the said firm revealed that the name of the firm is given as “XYZ & Co.” and not as “XYZ & Co. Patna” which is the name registered by the Institute. This means that the firm has submitted to the Institute the partnership deed of a firm by the name “XYZ & Co.”, whereas the partnership deed supposed to have been submitted should be that of “XYZ & Co., Patna”. Letters were written to such firms requesting them to submit the appropriate partnership deed. The first have replied that it was an inadvertent mistake on their part and on the part of the Institute which had approved a trade/firm name with city name as the suffix.

6.6 The firms, M/s WZ, Patna and M/s XYZ & Co. Patna, vide form No.117 sought approval of the Council of the Institute for the firm name, ‘XYZ, Patna’ and ‘XYZ & Co., Patna’ respectively. The subsequent forms 18 filed by the firm, for change in the constitution, also mention the firm name as such. However, the partners of the firm, while affixing their signatures on the audit reports, mention the name of the firm as ‘XYZ’ and ‘XYZ & Co.’ respectively. The audit reports of companies, which were audited by them, have been signed on behalf of ‘M/s XYZ’ and not ‘M/s XYZ Patna’ and by ‘M/s. XYZ & Co.’ and not ‘M/s. XYZ & Co. Patna’. It is an accepted fact that M/s XYZ, Patna and M/s XYZ & Co. Patna have carried out audits of certain companies whose shareholders have appointed M/s XYZ as the auditors. M/s XYZ and M/s XYZ & Co., by allowing the partners of M/s XYZ, Patna and M/s XYZ & Co. Patna respectively to audit the accounts of clients have rendered the audited accounts invalid ab-initio.

6.7 It is noted that Item (1) of Part I of the Second Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, which deals with professional misconduct in relation to Chartered Accountants in practice, mentions that a chartered accountant in practice shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct, if he discloses information acquired in the course of his professional engagement to any person other than his client so engaging him, without the consent of his client or otherwise than as required by any law for the time being in force. The auditors, by allowing the audit to be conducted by an unauthorized firm, without the consent of the client, which was not appointed as the statutory auditors, may have allowed all information relating to the audit being passed on to the said firm, thus breaching the aforesaid Item, for which both the firms which were appointed and the one which carried out the audit, may be in violation of the Code of Ethics.

6.8 In response to Institute’s letter, some firms have furnished details/documents after masking or eliminating certain portion such as financial figures, profit sharing ratio, capital contribution etc. The Institute has sent numerous letters to these CA firms for providing the information particularly, copies of agreements/contracts they have with their international affiliates/networks with complete annexures, partnership deed with complete annexures and schedules mentioned therein, assessment orders and/or tax returns, financial statements i.e. income and expenditure statement, balance sheet or statement of affairs including tax audit reports. As stated earlier, most of the firms have submitted copies of agreements/contracts, partnership deeds, assessment orders or income-tax returns but around 27% of firms have not furnished the information and have masked/blackened/not provided the important information. It may be further stated that some of the firms instead of complying with the directions of the Institute, have questioned the logic/reasoning behind seeking copies of income-tax returns, which according to them are commercially sensitive/confidential. One group of firms belonging to one network has cited two legal opinions that they have obtained in this regard and have declined to submit unmasked details.

However, they have sought personal hearing. As mentioned earlier, the Group considered this matter and noted that documents have been called in pursuance of the directions given by the Council and that detailed reasoning for calling of documents has also been given to the firms. Hence, the Group felt that it would not be within its powers to override directions of the Council and grant any concession to certain firms.

6.9 Section 2(2) of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 defines the term ‘to be in practice’. Pursuant to Section 2(2) above, the Council of the Institute has passed a resolution permitting Chartered Accountants in practice to render entire range of management consultancy and other services. The members of the Institute are governed by a Code of Ethics which is mandatory for every member of the Institute. The services rendered by the multinational entities in India are also to the nature of management consultancy (including financial services, valuation, audit and assurance services etc.) and other related services which are carried on through the medium of private limited companies which are carried using the internationally known accounting firm’s name. Since these entities employ Chartered Accountants as well as non-Chartered Accountants for discharging various responsibilities, a misleading Impression is created that the services rendered by the private limited companies are in fact rendered by a Multinational Accounting Firm. In fact, this is not so as the company rendering such services is neither registered with ICAI nor is governed by any ethical code or regulatory framework.”

26. Accordingly, the recommendations were made to the effect that the Council should consider action against the firms which had not given the full information; consider action against the firms who are sharing revenue with multinational entity/consulting entity in India which may include cost of marketing, publicity and advertising as against the ethics of CAs; action should be considered against the firms who had received financial grant from the multinational entities in spite of prohibition against the CA firms. A member is not allowed to accept any share, commission or brokerage from a non-member unless such non-member is a member of a professional body with prescribed qualifications. Further recommendation is that action be taken against the audit firms distributing its work to other firms and allowing them access to all confidential information without the consent of the client; require the CA firms to maintain necessary data about the remittances made and received on account of networking arrangement or sharing of fee; consider action against firms being paid or offered referral fee; it should be made mandatory for all firms who enter into any kind of affiliation/arrangement with any foreign entity to disclose their international affiliation/arrangement every year to the Institute;

Council should consider action against the firms using name and logo of international networks; action should also be considered for securing professional business by means which are not open to CAs in India. The Council should also issue public statement that without specific approval of the Council, by a notification under Section 29(2) of the CA Act, no MAF can directly or indirectly operate in India through any agreement or arrangement with any Indian entity/firm of CAs. No international firm or entity should be permitted to hold out to public that they are operating in India as a MAF as part of their network. No Indian CA firm should be permitted to pay any part of their profit or fee or other receipts to any person other than a member of ICAI or a firm owned by them by way of cost or percentage except payment for specific professional fee. The Council may request the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Reserve Bank of India and other relevant Ministries/Departments to take appropriate action so that the recommendations can be implemented to engage the services of accounting firms registered with ICAI. Only CAs and CA firms registered with ICAI should be permitted to provide audit and assurance services. Wherever MAFs are operating in India, directly or indirectly, they should not engage in any audit and assurance services without ‘No Objection’ and permission from ICAI and RBI. Instructions may be issued that any joint venture agreement, MOU, foreign collaboration agreement, stakeholders agreement, private equity fund condition, venture capital fund condition or side letters prescribing for appointment of a specific Chartered Accountant or a CA Firm or any other entity are illegal and against public interest.

Stand of the ICAI

27. ICAI in its response submitted that the function of the institute was to regulate the profession of chartered accountancy and to take action against misconduct of its members under The Chartered Accountants (Procedure of Investigations of Professional and Other Misconduct and Conduct of Cases) Rules, 2007. The accounting professionals had significant role in the economy of the country. The economy of India had witnessed two major securities scams in 1992 and 2001. The CA Act was amended on the recommendation of the Joint Parliamentary Committee which enquired into the stock market scams including the high level committee on the ‘Corporate Audit and Governance’ under the chairmanship of Shri Naresh Chandra which examined the Auditor-Company relationship and disciplinary mechanism for the Auditors. Amendment was proposed by the Council of the Institute to establish a Disciplinary Directorate headed by Director (Discipline).

28. In response to the grievance that no action was taken against PwCPL and their network audit firms in India, the ICAI submitted that its Disciplinary Directorate had already taken cognizance of the information in the Article dated 17 th January, 2012 in the Times of India “Sundry Income cushions PwC India”. Letter dated 9 th March, 2012 was written to PwC, New Delhi, Chennai, Bangalore, PwC, Kolkata, LL, Kolkata. A letter was also written to RBI. The stand of the PwC firms, was that news item did not make any reference to their firms and no clarification was necessary. PwC, Kolkata submitted that it was member of PwC network of firms around the world (‘PwC Network’). To maintain the quality standards of all members, a grant of Rs.65 crores was given to them by the PricewaterhouseCoopers Services BV during the financial year ended 31st March, 2011 as an outright, non refundable grant. The same was included in the “Sundry Income” in their annual accounts. The stand of LL, Kolkata, was that it was a member of PwC Network of Firms around the world. It received grant of Rs.28.97 crores for maintaining quality standards from PwC Services BV during the financial year ended 31 st March, 2011 as an outright, non-refundable grant. The Disciplinary Directorate sent a reminder to the RBI and sent a letter to the Commissioner of Income Tax, Kolkata and Joint Secretary (Revenue), Ministry of Finance. The Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax, Kolkata stated that scrutiny proceedings on issue of transfer pricing were pending for the assessment year 2010-2011 and 2011-2012 in respect of PwCPL. With regard to the failure of PwC, Bangalore to discover the scandal of ‘Satyam’, it was stated that the US Regulators, i.e., Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and PCAOB had taken action but in India the proceedings were getting prolonged. As regards failure of LL to point out high level of NPAs of GTB, it was submitted that no formal complaint was filed against PwCPL. The same is not registered and the Institute could not take any action against them under the CA Act as amended in 2006 and 2007 Rules. Action was taken against the members of LL, Shri S.

Gopalakrishnan, Shri P. Rama Krishna and Shri Manish Agarwal.

Action was also taken against Shri Kersi H. Vachha and Shri Amal Ganguli. In 2002-2003 action was taken against Shri Partha Ghosh and Shri D.V.P. Rao of M/s. PwC. PwC Bangalore were the auditors of ‘Satyam’ for which action was taken against CA S.

Gopalakrishnan (For the period 1.4.2000 to 31.3.2007), CA S.

Talluri (For the period 1.4.2007 to 30.9.2008), CA Pulavarthi Siva Prasad (for the period 1.4.2001 to 31.3.2005), CA Chintapatla Ravindernath (for the period 1.4.2005 to 30.9.2008). Action was also taken against V. Srinivasu, the then CFO of the Satyam, V.S.

Prabhakara Gupta, the then head of Internal Audit Cell of Satyam.

The Joint Director, SFIO filed a complaint dated 3rd March, 2009 in respect of DSQ Softwares Limited against CA Naresh Kumar Tharad of M/s. N.K. Tharad & Co., Chartered Accountants, Kolkata. It was revealed that company had made preferential allotment of shares to various entities in a fraudulent manner.

Stand of the Respondent-Firms

29. In its written submissions, Respondent No.5 M/s. Deloitte Haskins & Sells submitted that there is no allegation against it in the SLP. All the partners of Respondent No.5 were Indians and the firm was also registered with the ICAI. An expert group was constituted by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs which gave its report dated January 31, 2017 to the effect that Big six firms (MAFs) were not operating directly. Their network partners were rendering audit services. Indian network firms pay global network charges to their parent organization towards sharing common global costs of human resources and other infrastructure, technology cost. This is a standard practice across jurisdictions. It does not make MAFs subject to the control by the global parent. MAFs cannot be considered as multinational entities as there is no foreign control through ownership or management. Network partners are run, controlled and managed by Indian nationals. It was submitted the writ petition was not maintainable.

30. Reference has also been made to letter dated 3 rd July, 2017 addressed to the Secretary, Ministry of Corporate Affairs from the PMO, with reference to the said expert group incorporating the conclusions of the expert group as follows:

“a) The accounting and auditing standards and practices followed in India should be aligned to international standards and practices with customization to the extent necessary.

b) The small size of majority of India audit firms being a constraint in facing global competition, consolidation through merger and networking of India audit firms should be encouraged through policy measures.

c) With audit becoming a multi disciplinary function, formation of multi disciplinary audit firms with participation by professionals from other relevant professions should be promoted.

d) It should be ensured that the recommendations of Quality Review Board conducting technical evaluations of India audit firms are implemented.

e) If and when audit and assurance are opened to global competition, the principle of reciprocity should be followed and the interests of India audit firms should be given due consideration.”

31. The stand of the PwC Network (Respondents 6 to 11) is that PwC or PW is the brand owned by PwCIL registered under the laws of England limited by guarantee. PwCIL acts as a coordinating company within the PwC network and does not provide any business or audit services. Respondent Nos.6 to 11 are member entities of the PwC Network which consists of companies and firms around the world all of which are separate legal entities. PwCIL allows desirous entities to become members of the PwC network if they follow global standards to provide quality services for clients in respect of audit/non audit services. Uniform and consistent delivery is important. PwC network is not a global partnership. The network activities are to develop and implement policies and initiatives for a common and coordinated approach to maintain quality and standards of service. PwC brand name is based on name licence agreement to exercise cooperation amongst member firms. All the members (in 177 countries) have to pay a licence fees. PwC Services BV (Services BV) is incorporated in Netherlands to operationalize global standards of services. Services BV coordinates efforts of various firms across the globe to develop superior global common standard. Services BV does not do any client related work but develop standards. It pools money by charging the network entities a percentage of their revenue which is used to meet the expenses to develop standards. Firm Service Agreements are signed by network entities. Services BV works on no profit no loss basis. Network charges are paid by all member entities including the Indian member entities. The network felt the need of enhancing the standards and capacity of Indian network entities for which non refundable grants were provided. The grants are not in the nature of investment. These are current account transactions and not capital account transactions. For FY 2009-10, the grants were taxed but network charges paid to Services BV were disallowed as deduction. For FY 2010-11 assessment order has been passed on 29th September, 2016 against which appeal was pending.

32. The Enforcement Directorate (ED) sought information in respect of funds received from outside India. In March and August, 2016, ED issued summons. In July, 2017, ED again issued summons under Section 37 of FEMA seeking details of inward/outward remittances. In August, 2017, the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) was issued summons by the ED to provide information about the remittances.

33. The Registrar of Companies issued notices to show cause why prosecution should not be launched against the Directors and Company Secretary of the PwCPL in January, 2013. Company Law Board allowed compounding of the offences on payment of composition amount of Rs.8,31,000/-.

34. Auditing services are being carried by firms belonging to PwC Group as follows :

i) Price Waterhouse [FRN-310002E] – 66 Indian Partners (Respondent No.7)

ii) Lovelock & Lewes [FRN-301056E] – 66 Indian Partners (Respondent No.8)

iii) Price Waterhouse & Co. [FRN-050032S] – 19 Indian Partners (Respondent No.9)

iv) Price Waterhouse, Bangalore [FRN-007568S] – 18 Indian Partners (Respondent No.10)

v) Dalal & Shah LLP [FRN-102021W/W100110] – 16 Indian Partners (Respondent NO.11)

35. There are other LLPs which are members of PwC Network in India. All the partners are Indian by nationality and registered with ICAI. Directors are not partners. Indian Chartered Accountant member firms of PwC Network operate as independent entities.

36. Guidelines of the ICAI dated 27th September, 2011 apply to a network if the network has common ownership, control or management, common quality control policies and procedures, common business strategy, use of a common brand name or a significant part of professional resources.

37. The Expert Group Report of the ICAI recommended the following:

“No person or entity and specially Chartered Accountants can hold out to public that they are operating in India as or on behalf or in their trade name and in any other manner so as to represent them being part of or authorized by MAFs to operate on their behalf in India or they are actually representing MAFs or they are MAFs office/representatives in India, except those registered with ICAI in terms of Clause (Hi) as a network, in accordance with network guidelines as notified by the ICAI from time to time.” [(Clause 7.12 (v) of the Report at pg.152 of SLP No.1808 of 2016].”

38. The guidelines allow registration of a network and the PwC firms have filed their declaration in accordance with the above guidelines and are registered in India as per Regulations of the ICAI.

Merely because the PwC audit firms are part of global PwC Network does not by itself violate any applicable law. As regards the grants received in Financial Years 2008-09, 2009-10 and 2010-11, amounting to Rs.142.9, tax has been paid as per assessment and proceedings are pending. The Network has furnished all the information to the ICAI.

39. Since all the partners are Indians and are registered with ICAI, they are personally accountable to the ICAI for any professional misconduct. Services BV does not have any stake in the partnership or profits of the firms. Thus, there is no violation of Section 25 of the CA Act.

Stand of Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)/ED

40. Stand taken by the CBDT is that on receipt of letter dated 1 st July, 2013 from the Advocate for the petitioner, investigation was conducted by the Director General of Income Tax (Investigation) (DGIT) with regard to the income tax implications. It was found that 11 entities belonging to the PwC Group are operating in India. Four entities have received grants of Rs.477.64 crores from PwC Services BV during the period 2009 to 2013. The grants are of two types – professional capacity building and business expansion. Rs.416.39 crores are offered for tax which were taxed for professional capacity building as “sundry income”. The balance was claimed as capital receipt for expansion of business. The Assessing Officer made assessment of tax and proceedings were pending. According to ED, investigation in the matter is pending, though number of witnesses have been examined.

Stand of the Registrar of Companies (ROC)

41. The stand of the ROC, Kolkata is that prosecution was initiated against the auditors of the Company, who compounded the offences. Certain proceedings are still pending against the auditors of the Company.

Stand of the RBI

42. The stand of the RBI is that it only issues circulars and frames Regulations under the FEMA but does not conduct any investigation for compliance thereof. Regulation 3 of the Foreign Exchange Management (Investment in Firm or Proprietary concern in India) Regulations, 2000 is that a person resident outside India cannot invest in a firm or proprietary concern without permission of the RBI.

As per para 3.3.2 of the FDI Policy, investment without prior approval of the RBI is not permitted.

The statutory provisions

43. Sections 2(2), 25 and 29 of the CA Act are reproduced below :

“2 (2) A member of the Institute shall be deemed “to be in practice”, when individually or in partnership with chartered accountants [in practice], he, in consideration of remuneration received or to be received— (i) engages himself in the practice of accountancy; or (ii) offers to perform or performs services involving the auditing or verification of financial transactions, books, accounts or records, or the preparation, verification or certification of financial accounting and related statements or holds himself out to the public as an accountant; or (iii) renders professional services or assistance in or about matters of principle or detail relating to accounting procedure or the recording, presentation or certification of financial facts or data; or] (iv) renders such other services as, in the opinion of the Council, are or may be rendered by a chartered accountant [in practice]; and the words “to be in practice” with their grammatical variations and cognate expressions shall be construed accordingly. 3 Explanation:— An associate or a fellow of the Institute who is a salaried employee of a chartered accountant [in practice] or [a firm, of such chartered accountants] shall, notwithstanding such employment, be deemed to be in practice for the limited purpose of the [training of articled [assistants]].

25. Companies not to engage in accountancy. (1) No company, whether incorporated in India or elsewhere, shall practise as chartered accountants. (2) If any company contravenes the provisions of sub-section (1), then, without prejudice to any other proceedings which may be taken against the company, every director, manager, secretary and any other officer thereof who is knowingly a party to such contravention shall be punishable with fine which may extend on first conviction to one thousand rupees, and on any subsequent conviction to five thousand rupees.

29. Reciprocity. (1) Where any country, specified by the Central Government in this behalf by notification in the official Gazette, prevents persons of Indian domicile from becoming members of any institution similar to the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or from practising the profession of accountancy or subjects them to unfair discrimination in that country, no subject of any such country shall be entitled to become a member of the Institute or practise the profession of accountancy in India. (2) Subject to the provisions of sub-section (1), the Council may prescribe the conditions, if any, subject to which foreign qualifications relating to accountancy shall be recognised for the purposes of entry in the Register. [29A. Power of Central Government to make rules. (1) The Central Government may, by notification, make rules to carry out the provisions of this Act. (2) In particular and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing powers, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:- (a) the manner of election and nomination in respect of members to the Council under sub-section (2) of section 9; (b) the terms and conditions of service of the Presiding Officer and Members of the tribunal, place of meetings and allowances to be paid to them under sub-section (3) of section 10B; (c) the procedure of investigation under sub-section (4) of section 21; (d) the procedure while considering the cases by the Disciplinary Committee under sub-section (2), and the fixation of allowances of the nominated members under sub-section (4) of section 21B; (e) the allowances and terms and conditions of service of the Chairperson and members of the Authority and the manner of meeting expenditure by the Council under section 22C; (f) the procedure to be followed by the Board in its meetings under section 28C; and (g) the terms and conditions of service of the Chairperson and members of the Board under sub-section (1) of section 28D.]” First and Second Schedule of the CA Act :

[THE FIRST SCHEDULE] [See Sections 21(3), 21A(3) and 22] PART I Professional misconduct in relation to chartered accountants in practice A chartered accountant in practice shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct, if he — (1) allows any person to practice in his name as a chartered accountant unless such person is also a chartered accountant in practice and is in partnership with or employed by him;

(2) pays or allows or agrees to pay or allow, directly or indirectly, any share, commission or brokerage in the fees or profits of his professional business, to any person other than a member of the Institute or a partner or a retired partner or the legal representative of a deceased partner, or a member of any other professional body or with such other persons having such qualifications as may be prescribed, for the purpose of rendering such professional services from time to time in or outside India.

Explanation. – In this item, “partner” includes a person residing outside India with whom a chartered accountant in practice has entered into partnership which is not in contravention of item (4) of this Part; (3) accepts or agrees to accept any part of the profits of the professional work of a person who is not a member of the Institute:

Provided that nothing herein contained shall be construed as prohibiting a member from entering into profit sharing or other similar arrangements, including receiving any share commission or brokerage in the fees, with a member of such professional body or other person having qualifications, as is referred to in item (2) of this Part;

(4) enters into partnership, in or outside India, with any person other than a chartered accountant in practice or such other person who is a member of any other professional body having such qualifications as may be prescribed, including a resident who but for his residence abroad would be entitled to be registered as a member under clause (v) of sub-section (1) of section 4 or whose qualifications are recognised by the Central Government or the Council for the purpose of permitting such partnerships;

(5) secures, either through the services of a person who is not an employee of such chartered accountant or who is not his partner or by means which are not open to a chartered accountant, any professional business:

Provided that nothing herein contained shall be construed as prohibiting any arrangement permitted in terms of items (2), (3) and (4) of this Part; (6) solicits clients or professional work either directly or indirectly by circular, advertisement, personal communication or interview or by any other means: Provided that nothing herein contained shall be construed as preventing or prohibiting –

(i) any chartered accountant from applying or requesting for or inviting or securing professional work from another chartered accountant in practice ; or

(ii) a member from responding to tenders or enquiries issued by various users of professional services or organisations from time to time and securing professional work as a consequence;

(7) advertises his professional attainments or services, or uses any designation or expressions other than chartered accountant on professional documents, visiting cards, letter heads or sign boards, unless it be a degree of a University established by law in India or recognised by the Central Government or a title indicating membership of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or of any other institution that has been recognised by the Central Government or may be recognised by the Council:

Provided that a member in practice may advertise through a write up setting out the services provided by him or his firm and particulars of his firm subject to such guidelines as may be issued by the Council; (8) accepts a position as auditor previously held by another chartered accountant or a certified auditor who has been issued certificate under the Restricted Certificate Rules, 1932 without first communicating with him in writing;

(9) accepts an appointment as auditor of a company without first ascertaining from it whether the requirements of section 225 of the Companies Act, 1956 9 1 of 1956] in respect of such appointment have been duly complied with;

(10) charges or offers to charge, accepts or offers to accept in respect of any professional employment, fees which are based on a percentage of profits or which are contingent upon the findings, or results of such employment, except as permitted under any regulation made under this Act;

(11) engages in any business or occupation other than the profession of chartered accountant unless permitted by the Council so to engage:

Provided that nothing contained herein shall disentitle a chartered accountant from being a director of a company (not being a managing director or a whole time director) unless he or any of his partners is interested in such company as an auditor; (12) allows a person not being a member of the Institute in practice, or a member not being his partner to sign on his behalf or on behalf of his firm, any balance-sheet, profit and loss account, report or financial statements.

PART II Professional misconduct in relation to members of the Institute in service A member of the Institute (other than a member in practice) shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct, if he being an employee of any company, firm or person – (1) pays or allows or agrees to pay directly or indirectly to any person any share in the emoluments of the employment undertaken by him;

(2) accepts or agrees to accept any part of fees, profits or gains from a lawyer, a chartered accountant or broker engaged by such company, firm or person or agent or customer of such company, firm or person by way of commission or gratification.

PART III Professional misconduct in relation to members of the Institute generally A member of the Institute, whether in practice or not, shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct, if he – (1) not being a fellow of the Institute, acts as a fellow of the Institute;

(2) does not supply the information called for, or does not comply with the requirements asked for, by the Institute, Council or any of its Committees, Director (Discipline), Board of Discipline, Disciplinary Committee, Quality Review Board or the Appellate Authority;

(3) while inviting professional work from another chartered accountant or while responding to tenders or enquiries or while advertising through a write up, or anything as provided for in items (6) and (7) of Part I of this Schedule, gives information knowing it to be false.

PART IV Other misconduct in relation to members of the Institute generally A member of the Institute, whether in practice or not, shall be deemed to be guilty of other misconduct, if he — (1) is held guilty by any civil or criminal court for an offence which is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months;

(2) in the opinion of the Council, brings disrepute to the profession or the Institute as a result of his action whether or not related to his professional work.] THE SECOND SCHEDULE [See sections 21(3), 21B(3) and 22 ] PART I Professional misconduct in relation to chartered accountants in practice A chartered accountant in practice shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct, if he – (1) discloses information acquired in the course of his professional engagement to any person other than his client so engaging him, without the consent of his client or otherwise than as required by any law for the time being in force;

(2) certifies or submits in his name, or in the name of his firm, a report of an examination of financial statements unless the examination of such statements and the related records has been made by him or by a partner or an employee in his firm or by another chartered accountant in practice;

(3) permits his name or the name of his firm to be used in connection with an estimate of earnings contingent upon future transactions in a manner which may lead to the belief that he vouches for the accuracy of the forecast;

(4) expresses his opinion on financial statements of any business or enterprise in which he, his firm, or a partner in his firm has a substantial interest; (5) fails to disclose a material fact known to him which is not disclosed in a financial statement, but disclosure of which is necessary in making such financial statement where he is concerned with that financial statement in a professional capacity;

(6) fails to report a material misstatement known to him to appear in a financial statement with which he is concerned in a professional capacity;

(7) does not exercise due diligence, or is grossly negligent in the conduct of his professional duties; (8) fails to obtain sufficient information which is necessary for expression of an opinion or its exceptions are sufficiently material to negate the expression of an opinion;

(9) fails to invite attention to any material departure from the generally accepted procedure of audit applicable to the circumstances;

(10) fails to keep moneys of his client other than fees or remuneration or money meant to be expended in a separate banking account or to use such moneys for purposes for which they are intended within a reasonable time.

PART II Professional misconduct in relation to members of the Institute generally A member of the Institute, whether in practice or not, shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct, if he— (1) contravenes any of the provisions of this Act or the regulations made thereunder or any guidelines issued by the Council;

(2) being an employee of any company, firm or person, discloses confidential information acquired in the course of his employment except as and when required by any law for the time being in force or except as permitted by the employer;

(3) includes in any information, statement, return or form to be submitted to the Institute, Council or any of its Committees, Director (Discipline), Board of Discipline, Disciplinary Committee, Quality Review Board or the Appellate Authority any particulars knowing them to be false;

(4) defalcates or embezzles moneys received in his professional capacity.

PART III Other misconduct in relation to members of the Institute generally A member of the Institute, whether in practice or not, shall be deemed to be guilty of other misconduct, if he is held guilty by any civil or criminal court for an offence which is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding six months.

Regulation 3 of the Foreign Exchange Management (Investment in Firm or Proprietory concern in India) Regulations, 2000 “3. Restrictions on investment in a firm or a proprietary concern in India by a person resident outside India Save as otherwise provided in the Act or rules or regulations made or directions or orders issued thereunder, no person resident outside India shall make any investment by way of contribution to the capital of a firm or a proprietary concern or any association of persons in india;

Provided that the Reserve Bank may, on an application made to it, permit a person resident outside India subject to such terms and conditions as may be considered necessary to make an investment by way of contribution to the capital of a firm or a proprietary concern or any association of persons in India.” Clause 3.3.2 (III) of the Circular 2 of 2010 of the Consolidated FDI (CFDI) Policy :

“3.3.2 FDI in Partnership Firm / Proprietary Concern:

(iii)Investment by non-residents other than NRIs/PIO: A person resident outside India other than NRIs/PIO may make an application and seek prior approval of Reserve Bank for making investment by way of contribution to the capital of a firm or a proprietorship concern or any association of persons in India. The application will be decided in consultation with the Government of India. “ Consideration of the Issue

44. The above resume of facts and pleadings shows the following:

i) There is a bar under CA Act to practice as CAs for a company which includes a limited liability common partnership which has company as its partners.

ii) Code of Conduct for the CAs prohibits fee sharing, advertisements but the MAFs by using international brands and mixing other services with the services to be provided as part of practice of chartered accountancy violate the said Code of Conduct for which there is no regulatory regime as the MAFs do not register themselves with ICAI. Indian firms using similar brand names are registered with the ICAI but the real entities being MAFs, ICAI is unable to take requisite action for violation of Code of Ethics by the MAFs. Thus, revisit of existing legal framework may become necessary so as to have an oversight mechanism to regulate MAFs on the touchstone of Code of Ethics.

iii) Need for amendment of law to separate regulatory regime for auditing services on the pattern of Sarbanse Oxley Act enacted in US making a foreign public accounting firm preparing audit reports to be accountable to the Public Company Accounting. Similar oversight body may need to be considered in India.

iv) Section 29 of the CA Act provides that if a specified country, prohibits persons of Indian domicile from becoming members of any institution similar to ICAI or practicing the profession of accountancy or subjects them to unfair discrimination in that country, no subject of any such country shall be entitled to become a member of the Institute or practice the profession of accountancy in India.

v) FDI Policy and the RBI Guidelines framed under the FEMA prohibit the investment by a person outside India to make investment by way of contribution to the capital of a firm or a proprietary concern without permission of the RBI

vi) PwC Services BV Netherlands has made investments in Indian firms. According to the petitioners, the investment is also intended to acquire an audit firm through a circuitous route of giving interest free loans and further investments are in the form of grants for enhancement of skills. Profit sharing is in the form of licence fees/network charges. According to the network, the partners are all Indian partners and use of common brand name is only for uniform standard and giving of grants is for maintaining the said standard. There was no investment by an entity outside India. Nor it amounts to profit sharing by the Indian accountancy firms with an entity outside India.

45. It is an undisputed fact that there are remittances from outside India. The same could be termed as investment even though the remittances are claimed to be interest free loans to partners. The amount could also be for taking over an Indian chartered accountancy firm. Relationship of partnership firms, though having Indian partners, operating under a common brand name from same infrastructure, with foreign entity is not ruled out. It is not possible to rule out violation of FDI policies, FEMA Regulations and the CA Act. Thus, appropriate action may have to be taken in pending proceedings or initiated at appropriate forum.

46. The investigation so far carried out cannot be held to be complete in all respects. The investigation by income tax authorities is only for assessment of income tax. Action by the ROC also does not cover the issue raised herein. The investigation by the ED is said to be still pending, though several persons are said to have been examined and documents collected, which are under scrutiny. The said investigation relates to FEMA violations. The ICAI has initiated action with regard to foreign remittances and is said to have written a letter dated 19 th March, 2012 to the RBI to enquire whether investigation was conducted by the RBI. However, according to ICAI, its investigation can only be in respect of members, registered with it, for the misconduct conducted by them.

The ICAI does not claim to have conducted complete investigation for want of complete information into the issue whether the chartered accountancy firms by receiving remittances from outside India or remitting licence fee/network charges outside India have allowed participation of a company or a foreign entity in the accountancy business in violation of Section 25 of the CA Act and whether use of common brand name by the network firms is in violation of reciprocity stipulated under Section 29 of the CA Act.

The ICAI should have taken the matter to logical end, by drawing adverse inference, if information was withheld by the concerned groups.

47. No doubt, the report of the committee of experts of ICAI dated 29th July, 2011 does not specifically name the MAFs involved, groups A,B,C,D are mentioned. The ICAI ought to constitute an expert panel to update its enquiry. Being an expert body, it should examine the matter further to uphold the law and give a report to concerned authorities for appropriate action. Though the Committee analysed available facts and found that MAFs were involved in violating ethics and law, it took hyper technical view that non availability of complete information and the groups as such were not amenable to its disciplinary jurisdiction in absence of registration. A premier professionals body cannot limit its oversight functions on technicalities and is expected to play proactive role for upholding ethics and values of the profession by going into all connected and incidental issues.

48. Thus, a case is made out for examination not only by ED and further examination by the ICAI but also by the Central Government having regard to the issues of violation of RBI/FDI policies and the CA Act by secret arrangements.

49. It can hardly be disputed that profession of auditing is of great importance for the economy. Financial statements audited by qualified auditors are acted upon and failures of the auditors have resulted into scandals in the past. The auditing profession requires proper oversight. Such oversight mechanism needs to be revisited from time to time. It has been pointed out that post Enron Anderson Scandal, in the year 2000, Sarbanse Oxley Act was enacted in U.S.

requiring corporate leaders to personally certify the accuracy of their company’s financials. The Act also lays down rules for functioning of audit companies with a view to prevent the corporate analysts from benefitting at the cost of public interest. The audit companies were also prohibited from providing non audit services to companies whose audits were conducted by such auditors. Needless to say that absence of adequate oversight mechanism has the potential of infringing public interest and rule of law which are part of fundamental rights under Articles 14 and 21. It appears necessary to realise that auditing business is required to be separated from the consultancy business to ensure independence of auditors. The accounting firms could not be left to self regulate themselves.

50. While we appreciate that it is for the policy makers to take a call on the issue of extent to which globalization could be allowed in a particular field and conditions subject to which the same can be allowed. Safeguards in the society and economy of the country in the process are of paramount importance. This Court may not involve itself with the policy making but the policy framework can certainly be looked at to find out whether safeguards for enforcement of fundamental rights have been duly maintained. In the present context, having regard to the statutory framework under the CA Act, current FDI Policy and the RBI Circulars, it may prima facie appear that there is violation of statutory provisions and policy framework effective enforcement of which has to be ensured.

Statutory regulatory provisions intended to advance the object of law have to be enforced meaningfully. No vested interest can flout the same by manifesting compliance only in form. Compliance has to be in substance. The law enforcing agencies are expected to see the real situation. As found by the Expert Committee in its report, there is a compliance by MAFs only in form and not in substance, by having got registered partnership firms with the Indian partners, the real beneficiaries of transacting the business of chartered accountancy remain the companies of the foreign entities. The partnership firms are merely a face to defy the law. The principle of lifting the corporate veil has to apply when the law is sought to be circumvented. In expanding horizons of modern jurisprudence, it is certainly permissible. Its frontiers are unlimited. The horizon of the doctrine is expanding. While the company is a separate entity, the Court has come to recognize several exceptions to this rule. One exception is where corporate personality is used as a cloak for fraud or improper conduct or for violation of law. Protection of public interest being of paramount importance, if the corporate personality is to be used to evade obligations imposed by law, the real state of affairs needs to be seen 1. The same principle applies while overseeing the compliance of applicable ethics of not permitting profit sharing or complying with the ceiling limit for the business 1 State of Rajasthan vs. Gotan Lime Stone Khanji Udyog Pvt. Ltd. (2016) 4 SCC 469, paras 24 to 28; State of Karnataka vs. Selvi J. Jayalalitha (2017) 6 SCC 263, paras 205 to 211 which is violated by using the technique of sub contracts for outsourcing. If the premises are same, phone number/fax number is same, brand name is same, the controlling entity is same, human resources are same, it will be difficult to expect that there is full compliance on mere separate registration of a firm. The prohibition under Section 25 of the CA Act can be held to be defeated. It is perhaps for this reason that the network firms avoided giving the information sought by the Committee. The issue of separate oversight body for auditing work and updating existing legal framework appear to be necessary.

51. The other aspect is of investment in CA firms, in violation of prohibition of FDI policy, by using a circuitous route of interest free loans to partners. The fact that the income tax authorities have taken the grants received as revenue receipts and taxed the same as such is not conclusive to hold that the receipt is not an investment which is impermissible. If investment is not permitted, the policy of law cannot be defeated by terming such investment as grant for quality control specially when the grant has been used to acquire a chartered accountancy firm.

52. Absence of revisiting and restructuring oversight mechanism as discussed above may have adverse effect on the existing chartered accountancy profession as a whole on the one hand and unchecked auditing bodies can adversely affect the economy of the country on the other. Moreover, companies doing chartered accountancy business will not have personal or individual accountability which is required. Persons who are the face may be insignificant and real owners or beneficiary of prohibited activity may go scot free. As already noted, the Reports of the Study Group and Expert Group show that enforcement mechanism is not adequate and effective. This aspect needs to be looked into by experts in the Government. It may consider whether on the pattern of the Sarbanse Oxley Act corporate leaders be required to personally certify the accuracy of the financial statements. Further, how to prevent corporate analysts from benefitting from the conflict of interests, how to check audit companies from providing non audit services and how to lay down protocol for auditors. It has also been brought to our notice that another law in US ‘Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, 2010’ to ensure more transparency and accountability of financial institutions to decrease the risk of investing needs consideration. It sets up an oversight body called the Financial Stability Oversight Council (FSOC).

53. Accordingly, we issue the following directions:

(i) The Union of India may constitute a three member Committee of experts to look into the question whether and to what extent the statutory framework to enforce the letter and spirit of Sections 25 and 29 of the CA Act and the statutory Code of Conduct for the CAs requires revisit so as to appropriately discipline and regulate MAFs. The Committee may also consider the need for an appropriate legislation on the pattern of Sarbanes Oxley Act, 2002 and Dodd Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, 2010 in US or any other appropriate mechanism for oversight of profession of the auditors. Question whether on account of conflict of interest of auditors with consultants, the auditors’ profession may need an exclusive oversight body may be examined. The Committee may examine the Study Group and the Expert Group Reports referred to above, apart from any other material. It may also consider steps for effective enforcement of the provisions of the FDI policy and the FEMA Regulations referred to above.

It may identify the remedial measures which may then be considered by appropriate authorities. The Committee may call for suggestions from all concerned. Such Committee may be constituted within two months. Report of the Committee may be submitted within three months thereafter. The UOI may take further action after due consideration of such report.

(ii) The ED may complete the pending investigation within three months;

(iiI) ICAI may further examine all the related issues at appropriate level as far as possible within three months and take such further steps as may be considered necessary.

The matters stand disposed of accordingly.

…………………………….J.

[ADARSH KUMAR GOEL] …………………………..J.

[UDAY UMESH LALIT] NEW DELHI;

23rd FEBRUARY, 2018.

Grant of bail is the rule and refusal is the exception: Supreme Court Judgement

MASTI

The Supreme Court has held in the latest judgement that the historical background of the provision for bail has been elaborately and lucidly explained in a recent decision delivered in Nikesh Tarachand Shah v. Union of India, 2017 (13) SCALE 609 going back to the days of the Magna Carta.

In that decision, reference was made to Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia v. State of Punjab, (1980) 2 SCC 565 in which it is observed that it was held way back in Nagendra v. King-Emperor, AIR 1924 Cal 476 that bail is not to be withheld as a punishment.

Reference was also made to Emperor v. Hutchinson, AIR 1931 All 356 wherein it was observed that grant of bail is the rule and refusal is the exception.

The provision for bail is therefore age-old and the liberal interpretation to the provision for bail is almost a century old, going back to colonial days.

The Supreme Court clarified in the judgement that it does not mean that bail should be granted in every case. The grant or refusal of bail is entirely within the discretion of the judge hearing the matter and though that discretion is unfettered, it must be exercised judiciously and in a humane manner and compassionately. Also, conditions for the grant of bail ought not to be so strict as to be incapable of compliance, thereby making the grant of bail illusory.

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

CRIMINAL APPEAL NO. 321 OF 2018
(Arising Out of SLP (Crl.) Diary No. 1445 of 2018)

PANKAJ JAIN … APPELLANT

VERSUS

UNION OF INDIA & ANR. … RESPONDENTS

J U D G M E N T

ASHOK BHUSHAN, J.

Leave granted.

2. This appeal has been filed against the judgment and order of Allahabad High Court dated 21.12.2017 dismissing the Writ Petition No. 62167 of 2017 filed by the appellant. The principal issue, which has arisen for interpretation of this Court, is the content and meaning of Section 88 of the Code of Criminal Signature Procedure, 1973 (hereinafter referred to as Reason:

“Cr.P.C.”). Before we come to the impugned judgment of the High Court, it is necessary to note a series of litigations initiated at the instance of the appellant in different courts, arising out of criminal proceeding lodged against him.

3. A First Information Report under Sections 120-B, 409, 420, 466, 467, 469 and 471 of Indian Penal Code and under Sections 13(2) and 13(1)(d) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 was lodged against one Yadav Singh, the then Chief Engineer of Noida, Greater Noida and the Yamuna Expressway Authorities and a charge sheet dated 15.03.2016 being Charge Sheet No.02/2016 was submitted in the Court of Special Judge, C.B.I. against several accused including Yadav Singh and the appellant Pankaj Jain. The trial court took cognizance by order dated 29.03.2016 summoning accused for 29.04.2016 for appearance. The appellant filed an application under Section 482 Cr.P.C. in the Allahabad High Court being Application No. 31090 of 2016, praying for quashing the entire criminal proceeding of Special Case No. 10 of 2016 as well as summoning order dated 29.03.2016. The application was finally disposed off by the High Court vide order dated 17.10.2016 with a direction that if the applicant appears and surrenders before the Court below within two weeks and applies for bail, then his bail application shall be considered and decided. The appellant filed an Special Leave Petition (Crl.) No. 10191/2016 against the judgment of the High Court dated 17.10.2016, which was dismissed by this Court as withdrawn on 16.01.2017 with liberty to apply for regular bail.

4. A supplementary charge sheet was filed on 31.05.2017, on the basis of which a Cognizance Order dated 07.06.2017 was passed by the Special Judge, C.B.I. taking cognizance against the appellant and other accused under Sections 120B, 420, 468, 471 of I.P.C. and Sections 13(2) and 13(1)(d) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. Again an application under Section 482 Cr.P.C. being Application No. 18849 of 2017 was filed by the appellant in the High Court praying for quashing the criminal proceeding in pursuance of supplementary charge sheet dated 31.05.2017. The High Court vide its order dated 06.07.2017 disposed of the application under Section 482 Cr.P.c. directing that if the applicant appears and surrenders before the Special Judge, C.B.I. within two weeks and applies for bail, it is expected that the same will be disposed of expeditiously in accordance with law. It was further directed in the meantime for a period of two weeks, effect of non-bailable warrant shall be kept in abeyance. The appellant aggrieved by the order of the High Court dated 06.07.2017 again filed an Special Leave Petition (Criminal) No. 7749 of 2017, which was disposed of by this Court on 24.11.2017 granting further two weeks’ time to the petitioner(appellant) to apply for regular bail before the Special Judge, C.B.I. with a direction to the trial court to consider the said application for bail forthwith.

5. On 27.11.2017, the case was taken up by the Special Judge, C.B.I. The Court noticed that appellant and one other accused was not present. The Court ordered for issuing non-bailable warrants and process of Sections 82 and 83 of Cr.P.C. against the appellant. On the same day, noticing the order passed by this Court on 24.11.2017 in S.L.P. (Criminal) No. 7749 of 2017, the learned Special Judge stayed the orders against the appellant for a period of two weeks’ as per order of this Court. The appellant further filed Writ Petition (Criminal) No. 199 of 2017 in this Court under Article 32 of the Constitution of India contending that the petitioner (appellant), who was not arrested during investigation by the C.B.I., has to simply surrender and give a bond under Section 88 of the Code of Criminal Procedure. A direction to that effect was sought for by this Court. This Court disposed of the writ petition vide its order dated 06.12.2017 noticing the earlier order of this Court dated 24.11.2017 with the following order:-

“In view of our aforesaid orders dated 24.11.2017, we are of the opinion that the petitioner should, in the first instance, appear before the trial Court, which is the course of action already charted out. It would be open to the petitioner to move an application under Section 88 Cr.P.C. or a bail application, as may be advised. It will also be open to the petitioner to rely upon the judgments in support of his contention as noted above. It is for the trial Court to go through the matter and take a view thereupon. Insofar as this Court is concerned, no opinion on merits is expressed.

Mr. Mukul Rohatgi, learned senior counsel, submits that the petitioner, who is present in the Court today, shall surrender and appear before the trial Court tomorrow, 07.12.2017. This statement of the learned senior counsel is noted.

The writ petition stands disposed of in the aforesaid terms.”

6. After order of this Court dated 06.12.2017, the appellant appeared before Court of Special Judge, C.B.I. and submitted an application dated 07.12.2017. In the application, following prayer has been made:-

“a) That this Hon’ble Court may be pleased to forthwith take up and dispose this application made by the Applicant Pankaj Jain, who is voluntarily present before this Hon’ble Court, pursuant to the liberty granted by the Hon’ble Supreme Court vide Order dated 6.12.2017 passed in the Writ Petition (Crl.) No. 199 of 2017 read with Order dated 24.11.2017 passed in the SLP (Crl.) No. 7749 of 2017, and to permit him to furnish such bond, as may deemed fit, as per Section 88 of the Cr.P.C. in RC No. RC/DST/2015/A/0004/CBI/STF/DLI dated 30.07.2015/Case No. 10A/2016 and 3/2017 without sending him to any prison;

b) Any such other or further order as this Hon’ble Court may deem fit to grant in the facts and circumstances of the case and in the interest of justice.”

7. The above application dated 07.12.2017 was rejected by the Special Judge, C.B.I. The Special Judge, C.B.I. observed that the word ‘may’ used in Section 88 signifies that Section 88 is not mandatory and it is a matter of judicial discretion. The Special Judge after noticing the allegations of the appellant rejected the application No. 14B of 2017. Aggrieved against the judgment dated 07.12.2017, another application No. 101B of 2017 was filed by the appellant, which was also rejected. The applicant filed a S.L.P. (Crl.) No. 9764 of 2017, which was disposed of vide its order dated 15.12.2017 observing that since the impugned order is passed by the Special Judge, CBI, it would be appropriate for the petitioner to challenge that order by approaching the High Court. Subsequent to the order dated 15.12.2017, the petitioner-appellant filed a Writ Petition No. 62167 of 2017, where the Petitioner-appellant also sought to challenge the vires of Section 88 as well as writ for Certiorari quashing the order dated 07.12.2017 of trial court. In the Writ Petition, following prayers have been made:-

(a) Issue an appropriate writ, order or direction, declaring in the above context, the use of word ‘may’ in Section 88 of Cr.P.C. as unconstitutional, manifestly arbitrary, unreasonable and ultra vires of the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India or in the alternative to read it down by expounding, deliberating and delineating its scope in the context, to save Section 88 from unconstitutionally on the vice of Article 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India.

(b) Issue a writ of certiorari or any other appropriate writ, order or direction, setting aside the impugned Order/s dated 07.12.2017 passed by the Trial Court i.e. Special Judge for Anti-Corruption CBI cases at Ghaziabad, with consequential relief of setting the petitioner at liberty by permitting him to furnish his Bonds under Section 88 of Cr.P.C. to the satisfaction of the said Trial Court in RC No. RC/DST/2015/A/0004/CBI/STF/DLI dated 30.07.2015.

(c) Any further Order as may be in the interest of justice may also be passed by this Hon’ble Court.”

8. The writ petition has been dismissed by Division Bench of the High Court vide its judgment and order dated 21.12.2017, against which judgment this appeal has been filed.

9. We have heard Shri Mukul Rohtagi, learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant and Shri Maninder Singh, Additional Solicitor General of India for the respondent.

10. Shri Mukul Rohtagi, learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant submits that appellant having not been arrested during investigation when he appeared before the Special Judge, C.B.I., it was obligatory on the part of the Court to have accepted the bail bond under Section 88 of the Cr.P.C. and released the appellant forthwith. It is submitted that the Court of Special Judge committed error in rejecting the application under Section 88. It is further submitted that bail application was not filed by the appellant since all those, who appeared before the Court were taken into custody and their bail applications were rejected. Learned senior counsel submits that although Section 88 uses the word ‘may’ but the word ‘may’ has to be read as shall causing an obligation on the Court to release on bond, those, who appeared on their own volition in the Court. He further submits that the High Court committed error in observing that petitioner has concealed material facts from this Court when he had filed S.L.P. (Criminal) No. 7749 of 2017. It is submitted that all facts were mentioned in S.L.P. (Criminal) No. 7749 of 2017 and observation of the High Court that any fact was concealed is incorrect.

11. Shri Maninder Singh, learned Additional Solicitor General of India for the respondent refuting the submission of the appellant contended that Section 88 Cr.P.C. has been rightly interpreted by the High Court. It is submitted that against the appellant not only summons but non-bailable warrant and proceedings under Sections 82 and 83 Cr.P.C. were also initiated by the Special Judge. Hence, he was not entitled for indulgence of being released on submission of bond under Section 88 Cr.P.C. He further submits that the Court has discretionary power under Section 88 to release a person on accepting bond, which cannot be claimed as a matter of right by the accused, who has already been summoned and against whom non-bailable warrant has been issued. It is further submitted that although the petitioner-appellant has filed various applications under Section 482 Cr.P.C. as well as Special Leave Petitions before this Court, but has so far not filed any bail application before the Special Judge, C.B.I. He submits that although liberty was taken by the appellant from this Court on 16.01.2017 when SLP (Crl.) No. 10190 of 2017 was dismissed as well as on 24.11.2017 when SLP (Crl.) No. 7749 of 2017 was disposed off to apply for regular bail before the Court but inspite of taking such liberty, no application for bail was filed by the appellant.

12. We have considered the submissions of the learned senior counsel for the parties and perused the records.

13. The main issue which needs to be answered in the present appeal is as to whether it was obligatory for the Court to release the appellant by accepting the bond under Section 88 Cr.P.C. on the ground that he was not arrested during investigation or the Court has rightly exercised its jurisdiction under Section 88 in rejecting the application filed by the appellant praying for release by accepting the bond under Section 88 Cr.P.C.

14. Section 88 Cr.P.C. is a provision which is contained in Chapter VI “Processes to Compel Appearance” of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. Chapter VI is divided in four Sections – A.-Summons; B.-Warrant of arrest; C.- Proclamation and Attachment and D.-Other rules regarding processes. Section 88 provides as follows:-

88. Power to take bond for appearance.

-When any person for whose appearance or arrest the officer presiding in any Court is empowered to issue a summons or warrant, is present in such Court, such officer may require such person to execute a bond, with or without sureties, for his appearance in such Court, or any other Court to which the case may be transferred for trial.

15. We need to first consider as to what was the import of the words ‘may’ used in Section

88.

16. Justice G.P. Singh in “Principles of Statutory Interpretation”, 14th Edition, while considering the enabling words ‘may’ explained the following principles of interpretation:-

“(K) Enabling words, e.g., ‘may’, ‘it shall be lawful’, ‘shall have power’. Power Coupled with duty Ordinarily, the words ‘May’ and ‘It shall be lawful’ are not words of compulsion. They are enabling words and they only confer capacity, power or authority and imply discretion. “They are both used in a statute to indicate that something may be done which prior to it could not be done”. The use of words ‘Shall have power’ also connotes the same idea.”

17. Although, ordinary use of word ‘may’ imply discretion but when the word ‘may’ is coupled with duty on an authority or Court, it has been given meaning of shall that is an obligation on an authority or Court. Whether use of the word ‘may’ is coupled with duty is a question, which needs to be answered from the statutory scheme of a particular statute. The Principles of Interpretation have been laid down by Lord Cairns in Julius Vs. Lord Bishop of Oxford, (1874-80) All ER Rep. 43 where Lord Cairns enunciated Principles of Statutory Interpretation in the following words:-

“There may be something in the nature of the thing empowered to be done, something in the object for which it is to be done, something in the conditions under which it is to be done, something in the title of the person or persons for whose benefit the power is to be exercised, which may couple the power with a duty and make it the duty of the person in whom the power is reposed to exercise the power when called upon to do so.

Where a power is deposited with a public officer for the purpose of being used for the benefit of persons specifically pointed out with regard to whom a definition is supplied by the Legislature of the conditions upon which they are entitled to call for its exercise, that power ought to be exercised and the Court will require it to be exercised.

The enabling words are construed as compulsory whenever the object of the power is to effectuate a legal right”

18. Learned senior counsel for the appellant has referred to judgments of this Court in the case of State of Uttar Pradesh Vs. Jogendra Singh, AIR 1963 SC 1618 and Ramji Missar & Anr. Vs. State of Bihar, AIR 1963 SC 1088. In State of Uttar Pradesh Vs. Jogendra Singh (supra), this Court had occasion to consider the use of word ‘may’ in Rule 4(2) of the Uttar Pradesh Disciplinary Proceedings (Administrative Tribunal) Rules, 1947. In the above regard, in Paragraph 8 following has been stated:-

“8. Rule 4(2) deals with the class of gazetted government servants and gives them the right to make a request to the Governor that their cases should be referred to the Tribunal in respect of matters specified in clauses (a) to

(d) of sub-rule (1). The question for our decision is whether like the word “may” in Rule 4(1) which confers the discretion on the Governor, the word “may” in sub-rule (2) confers the dis- cretion on him, or does the word “may” in sub-rule (2) really mean “shall” or “must”? There is no doubt that the word “may” generally does not mean “must” or “shall”. But it is well set- tled that the word “may” is capable of meaning “must” or “shall” in the light of the context. It is also clear that where a discretion is conferred upon a public authority coupled with an obli- gation, the word “may” which denotes discretion should be construed to mean a command. Sometimes, the legislature uses the word “may” out of deference to the high status of the authority on whom the power and the obligation are intended to be conferred and imposed. In the present case, it is the context which is decisive. The whole purpose of Rule 4(2) would be frustrated if the word “may” in the said rule re-

ceives the same construction as in sub-rule (1). It is because in regard to gazetted government servants the discretion had already been given to the Governor to refer their cases to the Tribunal that the rule making au- thority wanted to make a special pro- vision in respect of them as distin- guished from other government servants falling under Rule 4(1) and Rule 4(2) has been prescribed, otherwise Rule 4(2) would be wholly redundant. In other words, the plain and unambiguous object of enacting Rule 4(2) is to provide an option to the gazetted gov- ernment servants to request the Gover- nor that their cases should be tried by a tribunal and not otherwise. The rule-making authority presumably thought that having regard to the sta- tus of the gazetted government ser- vants, it would be legitimate to give such an option to them. Therefore, we feel no difficulty in accepting the view taken by the High Court that Rule 4(2) imposes an obligation on the Gov- ernor to grant a request made by the gazetted government servant that his case should be referred to the Tri- bunal under the Rules. Such a request was admittedly made by the respondent and has not been granted. Therefore, we are satisfied that the High Court was right in quashing the proceedings proposed to be taken by the appellant against the respondent otherwise than by referring his case to the Tribunal under the Rules.”

19. This Court held that use of the word ‘may’ in Rule 4(2) confers an obligation and gaven the right to the government servants to make a request to the Governor. Thus, in the above case, the word ‘may’ was coupled with duty, which was held to be obligatory.

20. In Ramji Missar & Anr. Vs. State of Bihar (supra), this Court again considered Sections 11(1) and 6(2) of Probation of Offenders Act, 1958. In Para 16, this Court laid down following:-

“16. Though the word “may” might con- note merely an enabling or premissive power in the sense of the usual phrase “it shall be lawful”, it is also capa- ble of being construed as referring to a compellable duty, particularly when it refers to a power conferred on a court or other judicial authority. As observed in Maxwell on Statutes: “Statutes which authorise persons to do acts for the benefit of oth- ers, or, as it is sometimes said, for the public good or the advance- ment of justice, have often given rise to controversy when conferring the authority in terms simply en- abling and not mandatory. In enact- ing that they ‘may’, or shall, if they think fit,’ or, ‘shall have power,’ or that ‘it shall be law-

ful’ for them to do such acts, a statute appears to use the language of mere permission, but it has been so often decided as to have become an axiom that in such cases such expressions may have — to say the least — a compulsory force.”……………………

21. This Court noticed that in the 1958 Act, certain tests as a guidance have been laid down for exercise of discretion by the Court. The Court rejected the submission that there is unfettered discretion in the Appellate Court in exercising power under Section 11. The above case was also a case where discretion given to the Court to be exercised under certain guidelines and tests, which was a case of discretion coupled with duty.

22. This Court in the case of State of Kerala & Ors. Vs. Kandath Distilleries, (2013) 6 SCC 573 came to consider the use of expression ‘may’ in Kerala Abkari Act, 1902. The Court held that the expression conferred discretionary power on the Commissioner and power is not coupled with duty. Following observation has been made in paragraph 29:-

“29.Section 14 uses the
expression “Commissioner may”,
“with the approval of the

Government” so also Rule 4 uses the expressions “Commissioner may”, “if he is satisfied” after making such enquiries as he may consider necessary “licence may be issued”. All those expressions used in Section 14 and Rule 4 confer discretionary powers on the Commissioner as well as the State Government, not a discretionary power coupled with duty….”

23. Section 88 of the Cr.P.C. does not confer any right on any person, who is present in a Court. Discretionary power given to the Court is for the purpose and object of ensuring appearance of such person in that Court or to any other Court into which the case may be transferred for trial. Discretion given under Section 88 to the Court does not confer any right on a person, who is present in the Court rather it is the power given to the Court to facilitate his appearance, which clearly indicates that use of word ‘may’ is discretionary and it is for the Court to exercise its discretion when situation so demands. It is further relevant to note that the word used in Section 88 “any person” has to be given wide meaning, which may include persons, who are not even accused in a case and appeared as witnesses.

24. Learned counsel for the appellant has referred to two judgments of Delhi High Court, namely, Court on Its own Motion Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation, 109 (2003) Delhi Law Times 494. In the above case, certain general directions were issued by the Court in context of Section 173 and 170 of Cr.P.C. The said case was not a case where issue which has fallen in the present case pertaining to Section 88 Cr.P.C. was involved. The subsequent judgment of Delhi High Court in Sanjay Chaturvedi Vs. State, 132 (2006) Delhi Law Times 692 was also a case where earlier judgment of Delhi High Court in Court on Its own Motion Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation (supra) was followed. The said case also does not in any manner adopted the interpretation of Section 88 as contended by the appellant.

25. Another judgment of Delhi High Court in Bail Application No. 508 of 2011 Sanjay Chandra Vs. C.B.I. decided on 23.05.2011 supports the submission raised by learned Additional Solicitor General that power under Section 88 Cr.P.C., the word ‘may’ used in Section 88 Cr.P.C. is not mandatory and is a matter of judicial discretion. Paras 20, 21 and 22 of the judgment are to the following effect:-

“20. Learned Shri Ram Jethmalani and learned Shri K.T.S. Tulsi, Sr. Advocates appearing for accused Sanjay Chandra, learned Shri Mukul Rohtagi, Sr. Advocate appearing for accused Vinod Goenka, learned Shri Soli Sorabjee and learned Shri Ranjit Kumar, Sr. Advocates appearing for accused Gautam Doshi, learned Shri Rajiv Nayar, Sr. Advocate appearing for accused Hari Nair and learned Shri Neeraj Kishan Kaul, Sr. Advocate appearing for accused Surendra Pipara, at the outset, have contended that the order of learned Special Judge dated 20th April, 2011 rejecting the bail of the petitioners is violative of the mandate of Section 88 Cr.P.C. It is contended that admittedly the petitioners were neither arrested during investigation nor they were produced in custody along with the charge sheet as envisaged under Section 170 Cr.P.C. Therefore, the trial court was supposed to release the petitioners on bail by seeking bonds with or without sureties in view of Section 88 Cr.P.C. Thus, it is urged that on this count alone, the petitioners are entitled to bail.

21. The interpretation sought to be given by the petitioners is misconceived and based upon incorrect reading of Section 88 Cr.P.C., which is reproduced thus:

“88. Power to take bond for appearance.—When any person for whose appearance or arrest the officer presiding in any Court is empowered to issue a summons or warrant, is present in such court, such officer may require such person to execute a bond, with or without sureties, for his appearance in such court, or any other court to which the case may be transferred for trial”

22. On reading of the above, it is obvious that Section 88 Cr.P.C.

empowers the court to seek bond for appearance from any person present in the court in exercise of its judicial discretion. The Section also provides that aforesaid power is not unrestricted and it can be exercised only against such persons for whose appearance or arrest Bail Applications No.508/2011, 509/2011, 510/2011, 511/2011 & 512/2011 Page 21 of 34 the court is empowered to issue summons or warrants. The words used in the Section are “may require such person to execute a bond“ and any person present in the court. The user of word “may” signifies that Section 88 Cr.P.C. is not mandatory and it is a matter of judicial discretion of the court. The word “any person” signifies that the power of the court defined under Section 88 Cr.P.C. is not accused specific only, but it can be exercised against other category of persons such as the witness whose presence the court may deem necessary for the purpose of inquiry or trial. Careful reading of Section 88 Cr.P.C. makes it evident that it is a general provision defining the power of the court, but it does not provide how and in what manner this discretionary power is to be exercised. Petitioners are accused of having committed non- bailable offences. Therefore, their case for bail falls within Section 437 of the Code of Criminal Procedure which is the specific provision dealing with grant of bail to an accused in cases of non-bailable offences. Thus, on conjoint reading of Section 88 and 437 Cr.P.C., it is obvious that Section 88 Cr.P.C. is not an independent Section and it is subject to Section 437 Cr.P.C.

Therefore, I do not find merit in the contention that order of learned Special Judge refusing bail to the petitioners is illegal being violation of Section 88 Cr.P.C.”

26. Another judgment which is relevant in this context is judgment of Patna High Court in Dr. Anand Deo Singh Vs. The State of Bihar & Ors., 2000(2) Patna Law Journal Reports 686. The Patna High Court had occasion to consider Section 88 Cr.P.C. where in Para 18, following has been held:-

“18. In my considered view, Section 88 of the Code is an enabling provision, which vests a discretion in the Magistrate to exercise power under said Section asking the person to execute a bond for appearance only in bailable cases or in trivial cases and it cannot be resorted to in a case of serious offences. Section 436 of the Code itself provides that bond may be asked for only in cases of bailable offences.”

27. This Court had occasion to consider Section 91 of Cr.P.C. 1898, which was akin to present Section 88 of 1973 Act, in Madhu Limaye & Anr. Vs. Ved Murti & Ors., (1970) 3 SCC 739, following observations were made in context of Section 91:-

“…………….In fact Section 91 applies to a person who is present in Court and is free because it speaks of his being bound over, to appear on another day before the Court. That shows that the person must be a free agent whether to appear or not. If the person is al- ready under arrest and in custody, as were the petitioners, their appearance depended not on their own violation but on the violation of the person who had their custody. This section was therefore inappropriate and the ruling cited in support of the case were wrongly decided as was held by the Special Bench……………….”

28. Another judgment relied by the appellant is judgment of Punjab & Haryana High Court in Arun Sharma Vs. Union of India & Ors., 2016 (3) RCR (Criminal) 883. In the above case, the Punjab & Haryana High Court was considering Section 88 Cr.P.C. read with Section 65 of Prevention of Money Laundering Act. In the above context, following has been observed in Para 11:-

“11. On the same principles, in absence of anything inconsistent in PMLA with section 88 of Cr.P.C., when a person voluntarily appears before the Special Court for PMLA pursuant to issuance of process vide summons or warrant, and offers submission of bonds for further appearances before the Court, any consideration of his application for furnishing such bond, would be necessarily governed by section 88 of the Cr.P.C. read with section 65 of PMLA. Section 88 of the Cr.P.C. reads as follows-

“88. Power to take bond for appearance.–When any person for whose appearance or arrest the officer presiding in any Court is empowered to issue a summons or warrant, is present in such Court, such officer may require such person to execute a bond, with or without sureties, for his appearance in such Court, or any other Court to which the case may be transferred for trial.”

This Section 88 (corresponding to section 91 of Cr.P.C., 1898) would not apply qua a person whose appearance is not on his volition, but is brought in custody by the authorities as held by the Constitution Bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Madhu Limaye v. Ved Murti, AIR 1971 SC 2481 wherein it was observed that-

“18…….In fact Section 91 applies to a person who is present in Court and is free because it speaks of his being bound over, to appear on another day before the Court. That shows that the person must be a free agent whether to appear or not. If the person is already under arrest and in custody, as were the petitioners, their appearance depended not on their own volition but on the volition of the person who had their custody…….”

Thus, in a situation like this where the accused were not arrested under section 19 of PMLA during investigations and were not produced in custody for taking cognizance, section 88 of Cr.P.C. shall apply upon appearance of the accused person on his own volition before the Trial Court to furnish bonds for further appearances.”

29. The present is not a case where accused was a free agent whether to appear or not. He was already issued non-bailable warrant of arrest as well as proceeding of Sections 82 and 83 Cr.P.C. had been initiated. In this view of the matter he was not entitled to the benefit of Section

88.

30. In the Punjab & Haryana case, the High Court has relied on judgment of this Court in Madhu Limaye Vs. Ved Murti (supra) and held that Section 88 shall be applicable since accused were not arrested under Section 19 of PMLA during investigation and were not taken into custody for taking cognizance. What the Punjab & Haryana High Court missed, is that this Court in the same paragraph had observed “that shows that the person must be a free agent whether to appear or not”. When accused was issued warrant of arrest to appear in the Court and proceeding under Sections 82 and 83 Cr.P.C. has been initiated, he cannot be held to be a free agent to appear or not to appear in the Court. We thus are of the view that the Punjab & Haryana High Court has not correctly applied Section 88 in the aforesaid case.

31. We thus conclude that the word ‘may’ used in Section 88 confers a discretion on the Court whether to accept a bond from an accused from a person appearing in the Court or not. The both Special Judge, C.B.I. as well as the High Court has given cogent reasons for not exercising the power under Section 88 Cr.P.C. We do not find any infirmity in the view taken by the Special Judge, C.B.I. as well as the High Court in coming to the conclusion that accused was not entitled to be released on acceptance of bond under Section 88 Cr.P.C. We thus do not find any error in the impugned judgment of the High Court.

32. Shri Mukul Rohtagi, learned senior counsel for the appellant has placed reliance on recent judgment of this Court dated 06.02.2018 in Dataram Singh Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh & Anr., Criminal Appeal No. 227 of 2018. Learned counsel for the appellant submits that this Court has elaborately explained principles for grant or refusal of bail. This Court in Paras 6 and 7 made following observations:-

“6. The historical background of the provision for bail has been elaborately and lucidly explained in a recent decision delivered in Nikesh Tarachand Shah v. Union of India, 2017 (13) SCALE 609 going back to the days of the Magna Carta. In that decision, reference was made to Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia v. State of Punjab, (1980) 2 SCC 565 in which it is observed that it was held way back in Nagendra v. King-Emperor, AIR 1924 Cal 476 that bail is not to be withheld as a punishment. Reference was also made to Emperor v. Hutchinson, AIR 1931 All 356 wherein it was observed that grant of bail is the rule and refusal is the exception. The provision for bail is therefore age-old and the liberal interpretation to the provision for bail is almost a century old, going back to colonial days.

7. However, we should not be understood to mean that bail should be granted in every case. The grant or refusal of bail is entirely within the discretion of the judge hearing the matter and though that discretion is unfettered, it must be exercised judiciously and in a humane manner and compassionately. Also, conditions for the grant of bail ought not to be so strict as to be incapable of compliance, thereby making the grant of bail illusory.”

33. In the facts of the aforesaid case, the Court held that the trial court as well as the High Court ought to have exercised the discretion in granting the bail to the appellant. This Court in above circumstances, granted the bail to the appellant of that case. There cannot be any dispute to the proposition as laid down by this Court with regard to grant or refusal of the bail, which are well settled. The discretion to grant bail has to be exercised judiciously and in a humane manner and compassionately as has been laid down by this Court in the above case.

34. Shri Mukul Rohtagi, learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant submits that since the appellant has made a request to set him on liberty by accepting the bond before the Special Judge, C.B.I. as well may release the appellant on bail. He further submits that appellant is a person with 60% disability. He further submits that the loss which was alleged in the First Information Report is secured and this Court may exercise its jurisdiction in granting the bail to the appellant.

35. There are two reasons due to which we are unable to accept the request of the appellant to consider the case of bail of the appellant in present proceeding. Firstly, this Court on two earlier occasions had granted liberty to the appellant to make an application for bail before the trial court, the appellant has not filed any application for bail before the trial court and had insisted on releasing him on acceptance of bond under Section 88 Cr.P.C. Secondly, in the facts of this case, trial court is to first consider the prayer of grant of bail of the appellant. We, thus, are of the view that as and when the appellant files a bail application, the same shall be considered forthwith by trial court taking into consideration his claim of disability and other relevant grounds which are urged or may be urged by the appellant before it.

36. With these observations, the appeal is disposed of.

……………………..J.

( A.K. SIKRI ) ……………………..J.

NEW DELHI, ( ASHOK BHUSHAN )
February 23, 2018.